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What information should the nurse include in patient education for a patient prescribed valproic acid for bipolar disorder?
- A. Avoid consuming dairy products while taking this medication.
- B. Regular blood tests are necessary to monitor medication levels.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach for better absorption.
- D. It is safe to stop the medication abruptly if side effects occur.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Regular blood tests are crucial when taking valproic acid to monitor the medication levels in the bloodstream. This monitoring helps ensure that the patient is receiving the correct dosage for effective treatment and to prevent adverse effects associated with either subtherapeutic or toxic levels of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between valproic acid and dairy products. Choice C is incorrect as valproic acid can generally be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping valproic acid can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition.
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A healthcare provider is providing care for a patient with schizophrenia. Which symptom would be considered a positive symptom of this disorder?
- A. Alogia
- B. Anhedonia
- C. Delusions
- D. Flat affect
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Delusions are considered a positive symptom of schizophrenia. Positive symptoms represent an excess or distortion of normal functions, such as hallucinations, delusions, or disorganized speech or behavior. In contrast, negative symptoms involve a decrease or absence of normal functions, like alogia (poverty of speech), anhedonia (inability to experience pleasure), and flat affect (reduced expression of emotions). Therefore, in the context of schizophrenia, delusions fall under the category of positive symptoms.
A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed escitalopram. The nurse should educate the patient that the full therapeutic effect of this medication may take:
- A. 1-2 days
- B. 1-2 weeks
- C. 2-4 weeks
- D. 6-8 weeks
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Escitalopram, an SSRI used in treating generalized anxiety disorder, typically takes 6-8 weeks to achieve its full therapeutic effect. While some improvement may be noticed earlier, the maximum benefit is usually experienced after this timeframe. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they underestimate the time required for escitalopram to reach its full effectiveness. Educating patients about the realistic timeline for medication effectiveness is crucial in managing expectations and ensuring adherence to the prescribed treatment.
Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
- A. Haloperidol
- B. Fluoxetine
- C. Methylphenidate
- D. Clozapine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant commonly used in the treatment of ADHD. It helps improve focus, attention, and impulse control in individuals with ADHD. Haloperidol and clozapine are antipsychotic medications typically used for other conditions such as schizophrenia, while fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor commonly used to treat depression and anxiety disorders. Therefore, the correct answer is Methylphenidate (Choice C).
A patient with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is prescribed prazosin. The nurse understands that this medication is used to treat which symptom of PTSD?
- A. Flashbacks
- B. Nightmares
- C. Hypervigilance
- D. Depression
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prazosin is a medication often prescribed to manage nightmares in patients with PTSD. It works by blocking the action of adrenaline on specific receptors, which helps in reducing the intensity and frequency of nightmares. While flashbacks, hypervigilance, and depression are also common symptoms of PTSD, prazosin is specifically indicated for nightmares associated with the disorder. Flashbacks are typically addressed through therapies like cognitive-behavioral therapy, hypervigilance may be managed through counseling and coping strategies, and depression may necessitate antidepressant medications or therapy tailored for depression.
Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
- A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
- B. Psychoanalysis
- C. Medication management
- D. Group therapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.