What instruction should be provided for a UAP caring for a client with MRSA who has an order for contact precautions?
- A. Do not allow visitors until precautions are discontinued
- B. Wear sterile gloves when handling the client's body fluids
- C. Have the client wear a mask whenever someone enters the room
- D. Don a gown and gloves when entering the room
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for a UAP caring for a client with MRSA under contact precautions is to don a gown and gloves when entering the client's room. This precaution is essential to prevent the spread of MRSA and protect both the client and the healthcare worker from potential infection. Choice A is incorrect because visitors should not be restricted solely based on contact precautions. Choice B is incorrect as wearing sterile gloves is not necessary, standard precautions with regular gloves are sufficient. Choice C is incorrect because the client wearing a mask is not a standard practice for contact precautions; it is the healthcare worker who should take preventive measures.
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The client reports still being unable to sleep a week after learning progressive muscle relaxation techniques. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Instruct the client to add regular exercise to the daily routine.
- B. Determine if the client has been keeping a sleep diary.
- C. Encourage the client to continue the routine until sleep is achieved.
- D. Ask the client to describe the routine currently followed.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should first assess the client's adherence to the original instructions. By asking the client to describe the routine, the nurse can evaluate if the technique is being correctly implemented before considering further interventions. This choice is correct as it focuses on assessing the client's current practice. Option A is incorrect as adding regular exercise may not address the issue with the relaxation technique. Option B is incorrect as determining if the client has been keeping a sleep diary does not directly address the efficacy of the relaxation technique. Option C is incorrect as blindly encouraging the client to continue may not be the best approach without understanding how the technique is being practiced.
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin). Which dietary instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K
- B. Increase intake of leafy green vegetables
- C. Consume a consistent amount of foods high in potassium
- D. Limit intake of high-protein foods
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct dietary instruction for a client taking warfarin is to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Consuming foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy green vegetables, can antagonize the effects of warfarin, potentially leading to treatment inefficacy or fluctuations in anticoagulation levels. Therefore, clients on warfarin therapy should be advised to avoid foods high in vitamin K to maintain the effectiveness of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing leafy green vegetables (choice B) would introduce more vitamin K, consuming a consistent amount of foods high in potassium (choice C) is not directly related to warfarin therapy, and limiting high-protein foods (choice D) is not a specific concern for clients on warfarin therapy.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of fluid volume deficit. Which clinical finding would the nurse expect?
- A. Bounding pulse
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Oliguria
- D. Dry mucous membranes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Dry mucous membranes (D) are a common clinical finding indicating fluid volume deficit. In dehydration, there is insufficient fluid in the body, leading to dry mucous membranes due to decreased saliva production. Bounding pulse (A) is associated with fluid volume excess, not deficit. Bradycardia (B) and oliguria (C) are not typical clinical findings of fluid volume deficit but may be seen in fluid volume excess or other conditions.
A client with a diagnosis of hyperkalemia is receiving sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Serum sodium level.
- B. Serum potassium level.
- C. Serum calcium level.
- D. Serum glucose level.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium level. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used to treat hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, leading to potassium removal from the body. Monitoring the serum potassium level allows the nurse to assess the effectiveness of this medication in lowering the elevated potassium levels. Serum sodium (A), calcium (C), and glucose (D) levels are not directly impacted by the action of sodium polystyrene sulfonate.
A client with cirrhosis and ascites is receiving furosemide 40 mg BID. The pharmacy provides 20 mg tablets. How many tablets should the client receive each day? [Enter numeric value only]
- A. 4 tablets
- B. 3 tablets
- C. 2 tablets
- D. 1 tablet
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the total daily dose of furosemide needed, 40 mg BID (twice a day) is 80 mg/day. Since each tablet is 20 mg, the client should receive a total of 4 tablets per day (80 mg · 20 mg per tablet = 4 tablets). Therefore, the correct answer is 4 tablets. Choice B (3 tablets) is incorrect because it does not provide the correct total daily dose. Choice C (2 tablets) is incorrect as it would not meet the required dose of 80 mg/day. Choice D (1 tablet) is incorrect as it would be insufficient to achieve the prescribed daily dose.