What instruction should be provided for a UAP caring for a client with MRSA who has an order for contact precautions?
- A. Do not allow visitors until precautions are discontinued
- B. Wear sterile gloves when handling the client's body fluids
- C. Have the client wear a mask whenever someone enters the room
- D. Don a gown and gloves when entering the room
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for a UAP caring for a client with MRSA under contact precautions is to don a gown and gloves when entering the client's room. This precaution is essential to prevent the spread of MRSA and protect both the client and the healthcare worker from potential infection. Choice A is incorrect because visitors should not be restricted solely based on contact precautions. Choice B is incorrect as wearing sterile gloves is not necessary, standard precautions with regular gloves are sufficient. Choice C is incorrect because the client wearing a mask is not a standard practice for contact precautions; it is the healthcare worker who should take preventive measures.
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What information should the nurse offer a client who uses herbal therapies to supplement their diet and manage common ailments about the general use of herbal supplements?
- A. Most herbs are toxic or carcinogenic and should only be used when proven effective.
- B. There is no evidence that herbs are safe or effective compared to conventional supplements in maintaining health.
- C. Herbs should be obtained from manufacturers with a history of quality control for their supplements.
- D. Herbal therapies may mask the symptoms of serious diseases, requiring frequent medical evaluations during use.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: It is essential for clients using herbal therapies to obtain herbs from manufacturers with a history of quality control for their supplements. This recommendation is crucial because quality control processes help in maintaining the purity and effectiveness of the herbal supplements. Option A is incorrect as it provides a negative and inaccurate generalization about herbs. Option B is also incorrect as there is existing evidence on the safety and efficacy of certain herbal supplements. Option D is not the most relevant information to offer initially to a client seeking advice on the general use of herbal supplements.
The client is weak from inactivity due to a 2-week hospitalization. In planning care for the client, which range of motion (ROM) exercises should the nurse include?
- A. Passive ROM exercises to all joints on all extremities four times a day.
- B. Active ROM exercises to both arms and legs two or three times a day.
- C. Active ROM exercises with weights twice a day, 20 repetitions each.
- D. Passive ROM exercises to the point of resistance and slightly beyond.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Active ROM exercises are preferred over passive ROM to restore strength. Performing them on both arms and legs two or three times a day is effective in promoting muscle strength and mobility without the need for external assistance. Choice A is incorrect as passive ROM exercises may not help in restoring strength. Choice C is not recommended as using weights may be too strenuous for a weak client. Choice D is incorrect as passive ROM exercises to the point of resistance and slightly beyond may cause discomfort or injury to the weak client.
How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.
- A. 31 gtt/min.
- B. 62 gtt/min.
- C. 93 gtt/min.
- D. 124 gtt/min.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.
During the insertion of a nasogastric tube (NGT), the client begins to cough and gag. What action should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Stop advancing the tube and allow the client to rest
- B. Remove the tube and try again after a few minutes
- C. Continue inserting the tube while the client sips water
- D. Withdraw the tube slightly and pause before continuing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a client begins to cough and gag during the insertion of a nasogastric tube, withdrawing the tube slightly and pausing is the appropriate action. This technique helps prevent further irritation, gives the client a moment to recover, and allows for a smoother continuation of the insertion process. Choice A is incorrect because allowing the client to rest without adjusting the tube position might not address the issue. Choice B is incorrect as removing the tube without addressing the cause of coughing and gagging may lead to repeated discomfort. Choice C is incorrect as continuing to insert the tube while the client is experiencing difficulties can increase discomfort and potential complications.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of fluid volume deficit. Which clinical finding would the nurse expect?
- A. Bounding pulse
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Oliguria
- D. Dry mucous membranes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Dry mucous membranes (D) are a common clinical finding indicating fluid volume deficit. In dehydration, there is insufficient fluid in the body, leading to dry mucous membranes due to decreased saliva production. Bounding pulse (A) is associated with fluid volume excess, not deficit. Bradycardia (B) and oliguria (C) are not typical clinical findings of fluid volume deficit but may be seen in fluid volume excess or other conditions.