Nokea
What intervention has the highest priority for a client with a fourth-degree midline laceration following the vaginal delivery of an 8-pound 10-ounce infant?
- A. Administer a prescribed stool softener
- B. Administer prescribed PRN sleep medications
- C. Encourage breastfeeding to promote uterine involution
- D. Encourage the use of prescribed analgesic perineal sprays
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering a prescribed stool softener is the highest priority intervention for a client with a fourth-degree midline laceration to prevent straining during bowel movements, which could potentially harm the healing laceration. Stool softeners help in maintaining soft stools, reducing the risk of injury to the suture line. Administering PRN sleep medications, encouraging breastfeeding, or promoting the use of analgesic perineal sprays are important aspects of care but are not the priority in this situation. Stool softeners play a crucial role in preventing complications and promoting healing in such cases, making it the most urgent intervention.
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A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate if shortness of breath occurs
- B. Use oxygen only when experiencing shortness of breath
- C. Do not adjust the oxygen flow rate without consulting a healthcare provider
- D. Use a humidifier with the oxygen to prevent dry mucous membranes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most important instruction the nurse should provide to a client with COPD prescribed oxygen therapy is not to adjust the oxygen flow rate without consulting a healthcare provider. This is crucial because too much oxygen can suppress the client's respiratory drive, leading to further complications. Choice A is incorrect because increasing the oxygen flow rate without medical advice can be harmful. Choice B is incorrect as oxygen therapy should be used as prescribed, not just when symptoms occur. Choice D is incorrect as the priority is to ensure the correct oxygen flow rate rather than using a humidifier.
A client is scheduled for a sigmoidoscopy and expresses anxiety about the procedure. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Offer information about the procedure steps
- B. Administer an anxiolytic before the procedure
- C. Encourage the client to discuss their fears
- D. Reassure the client that the procedure is common and safe
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse when a client expresses anxiety about a procedure is to encourage the client to discuss their fears. By allowing the client to express their concerns, the nurse can provide personalized support, address specific worries, and offer tailored information. This approach helps to establish trust, reduce anxiety, and promote a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Offering information about the procedure steps (Choice A) may be helpful but should come after addressing the client's fears. Administering an anxiolytic (Choice B) should not be the first action as it focuses on symptom management rather than addressing the underlying cause of anxiety. Reassuring the client that the procedure is common and safe (Choice D) is important but should follow active listening and addressing the client's fears.
After morning dressing changes, a male client with paraplegia contaminates his ischial decubiti dressing with diarrheal stool. What is the best activity for the nurse to assign to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
- A. Identify the need for additional supplies for an extra dressing change
- B. Provide perianal care and collect clean linens for the dressing change
- C. Document the diarrhea that necessitates an additional dressing change
- D. Position the client for access to the decubiti sites and remove dressings
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best activity for the nurse to assign to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) in this situation is to provide perianal care and collect clean linens for the dressing change. This task is crucial to maintain proper hygiene, prevent infection, and promote healing in the areas affected by decubiti. Choice A is not the priority as addressing the contamination and ensuring hygiene is more critical. Choice C is not the immediate concern and does not address the current situation. Choice D involves direct client care tasks that should be handled by licensed nursing staff.
The client is being educated by the nurse about the side effects of prednisone. Which side effect should the client be instructed to report immediately?
- A. Weight gain.
- B. Increased appetite.
- C. Hyperglycemia.
- D. Fever or sore throat.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fever or sore throat. These symptoms should be reported immediately as they could indicate an infection, which can be serious in clients taking prednisone due to its immunosuppressive effects. Choices A and B are common side effects of prednisone but are not typically considered urgent. Choice C, hyperglycemia, is a known side effect of prednisone but is not an immediate concern compared to the potential of an infection signaled by fever or sore throat.
The nurse is caring for a client postoperatively following a thyroidectomy. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Hoarseness of the voice.
- B. Slight swelling at the incision site.
- C. Tingling around the mouth.
- D. Mild fever.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tingling around the mouth should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately as it may indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication after thyroidectomy. Hoarseness of the voice is common postoperatively due to surgical manipulation, slight swelling at the incision site is a normal response, and a mild fever can be expected after surgery. However, tingling around the mouth suggests a potential calcium imbalance, which requires prompt attention to prevent serious complications.