Nokea
What intervention is required when continuous bubbling is seen in the chest tube water seal chamber?
- A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
- B. Clamp the chest tube
- C. Replace the chest tube
- D. Continue monitoring the chest tube
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, tightening the connections of the chest tube system is the appropriate intervention. This action can often resolve an air leak, which is the common cause of continuous bubbling. Clamping the chest tube or replacing it is not recommended as the first-line intervention because it may lead to complications or unnecessary tube changes. Continuing to monitor the chest tube without addressing the air leak would delay necessary corrective action, potentially causing respiratory compromise in the patient. Therefore, tightening the connections of the chest tube system is the most suitable initial step to manage continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
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A patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is asking for dietary recommendations. What should the nurse suggest?
- A. Limit protein intake
- B. Limit potassium intake
- C. Restrict sodium intake
- D. Limit phosphorus intake to 700mg/day
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, it is crucial to limit phosphorus intake to 700mg/day to manage their condition. High phosphorus levels can lead to complications such as bone and heart problems. Limiting protein intake is essential in later stages of kidney disease, particularly in dialysis patients to reduce the buildup of waste products. While limiting potassium and restricting sodium intake are also important in kidney disease management, the priority for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to control phosphorus levels.
During an escharotomy on a patient with a burn injury, what is the purpose of this procedure?
- A. To release pressure and improve circulation in the affected area
- B. To remove dead tissue from the burn area
- C. To improve breathing by reducing skin tightness
- D. To prevent infection in the burned area
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: During an escharotomy on a patient with a burn injury, the purpose of this procedure is to release pressure and improve circulation in the affected area. This intervention is crucial in severe burns where the formation of eschar (dead tissue) can lead to increased pressure, compromising circulation and potentially causing further tissue damage. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because escharotomy specifically aims to address pressure and circulation issues in severe burn injuries, rather than removing dead tissue, improving breathing, or preventing infection.
What is the first-line treatment for a patient experiencing wheezing and coughing due to an allergic reaction?
- A. Albuterol via nebulizer
- B. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
- C. Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer
- D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by an allergic reaction as it quickly opens the airways, providing rapid relief. Choice B, Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV, is a systemic corticosteroid that may be used in severe cases to reduce inflammation but is not the initial treatment for acute wheezing. Choice C, Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer, is a mast cell stabilizer that is more commonly used for prophylaxis rather than acute relief in allergic conditions. Choice D, Aminophylline 500 mg IV, is a bronchodilator that is less commonly used now due to its narrow therapeutic window and potential for toxicity, making it less preferred than Albuterol for initial treatment of wheezing.
What are the priority lab values to monitor in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Hemoglobin levels
- D. Serum albumin levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 count below 180 cells/mm3 is considered severe immunocompromise and requires close monitoring and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values to monitor in HIV patients. While white blood cell count, hemoglobin levels, and serum albumin levels can provide valuable information about the patient's health status, they are not as specific or indicative of HIV disease progression and management as the CD4 T-cell count.
What are the expected findings in a patient with hypokalemia?
- A. Cardiac dysrhythmias
- B. Seizures and confusion
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Muscle weakness
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac dysrhythmias. Hypokalemia is commonly associated with cardiac dysrhythmias due to the role potassium plays in maintaining proper electrical conduction in the heart. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. While hypokalemia can lead to muscle weakness, the most critical and life-threatening manifestation is cardiac dysrhythmias. Seizures and confusion are more commonly associated with other electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia. Bradycardia is not a typical finding in hypokalemia, as it tends to cause tachycardia or other arrhythmias.