Nokea
What is a characteristic of coronary artery disease (CAD)?
- A. The build-up of infectious by-products in the lymph nodes
- B. Insufficient delivery of oxygenated blood to the myocardium
- C. Insufficient delivery of carbon dioxide to the lungs
- D. The build-up of bile in the stomach and gallbladder
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct characteristic of coronary artery disease (CAD) is the insufficient delivery of oxygenated blood to the myocardium. CAD is a condition where the coronary arteries become narrowed or blocked, leading to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. This lack of oxygenated blood can result in chest pain, known as angina, and if a coronary artery becomes completely blocked, it can cause a heart attack. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A refers to an issue related to the lymphatic system, choice C is about gas exchange in the lungs, and choice D describes a problem with bile accumulation in the digestive system, none of which are characteristics of CAD.
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What common symptom should be assessed in individuals with immunodeficiency?
- A. Anemia
- B. Recurrent infections
- C. Hypersensitivity
- D. Autoantibody production
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Recurrent infections are a hallmark symptom of immunodeficiency. Individuals with impaired immune systems are more susceptible to recurrent infections due to their compromised ability to fight off pathogens. Anemia (Choice A) is not a direct symptom of immunodeficiency but can be a consequence of chronic diseases. Hypersensitivity (Choice C) refers to exaggerated immune responses rather than impaired immune function. Autoantibody production (Choice D) is not typically a primary symptom of immunodeficiency but may be seen in certain autoimmune conditions.
A 21-year-old male is being started on zidovudine (AZT) for the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates that he has understood the patient teaching?
- A. "AZT inactivates the virus and prevents recurrence of the disease."
- B. "AZT therapy may result in the development of AZT-resistant strains."
- C. "AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it."
- D. "AZT prevents the occurrence of opportunistic infections."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When the patient states, "AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it," it shows an understanding that zidovudine (AZT) does not provide a cure for HIV/AIDS but helps in slowing down the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect because AZT does not inactivate the virus or prevent recurrence. Choice B is incorrect as AZT resistance can develop with therapy. Choice D is incorrect because while AZT can help prevent opportunistic infections by boosting the immune system, its primary action is not the prevention of opportunistic infections.
A 22-year-old woman began using oral contraceptives several months ago and has presented for an appointment to discuss recent worrisome changes in her health status. Which of the following changes in the woman's health may the nurse potentially attribute to the use of oral contraceptives?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Frequent high blood pressure readings
- C. Frequent headaches without aura
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fatigue. Oral contraceptives can sometimes cause fatigue as a side effect. Frequent high blood pressure readings and frequent headaches without aura are less likely to be directly related to the use of oral contraceptives. Nausea and vomiting are common side effects of oral contraceptives but are not the changes typically associated with liver function affecting hormone metabolism as in the case of hepatitis C infection.
A male patient with hypogonadism is receiving testosterone therapy. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Increased risk of breast cancer
- B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- C. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- D. Increased risk of prostate cancer
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial when administering testosterone therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because testosterone therapy does not typically lead to an increased risk of breast cancer, liver dysfunction, or prostate cancer.
A patient has been using Viagra on an intermittent basis for several years. However, he has cited delays in the onset and peak of action as the occasional source of frustration. What PDE5 inhibitor may be of particular benefit to this patient's needs?
- A. Avanafil (Stendra)
- B. Tadalafil (Cialis)
- C. Vardenafil (Levitra)
- D. Alprostadil (Caverject)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Avanafil (Stendra). Avanafil has a rapid onset of action compared to other PDE5 inhibitors, making it suitable for patients experiencing delays in onset and peak of action with other medications like Viagra. Tadalafil (Cialis), Vardenafil (Levitra), and Alprostadil (Caverject) do not offer the same rapid onset of action as Avanafil, making them less suitable for addressing the specific needs of this patient.