Nokea
What is an appropriate goal for a nurse when working with a patient who has anorexia nervosa?
- A. The patient will achieve rapid weight gain and improve self-esteem.
- B. The patient will restore nutritional balance through safe weight gain.
- C. The patient will accept their body image without therapeutic intervention.
- D. The patient will maintain a healthy weight without any professional assistance.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because restoring nutritional balance through safe weight gain is a realistic and appropriate goal for a nurse working with a patient with anorexia nervosa. This goal focuses on the patient's physical health and addresses the underlying issue of malnutrition. Rapid weight gain (A) may be dangerous and unsustainable. Accepting body image without intervention (C) ignores the severity of the disorder. Maintaining a healthy weight without professional assistance (D) is unlikely for someone with anorexia nervosa who requires specialized care.
You may also like to solve these questions
What is the priority intervention for a nurse caring for a patient with bulimia nervosa?
- A. Assist the patient to identify triggers to binge eating.
- B. Provide remedial consequences for weight loss.
- C. Assess for signs of impulsive eating.
- D. Explore needs for health teaching.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assist the patient to identify triggers to binge eating. This intervention is crucial for managing bulimia nervosa as it helps address the root cause of the behavior. By identifying triggers, the patient can develop strategies to avoid or cope with them, ultimately reducing the frequency of binge eating episodes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because providing consequences for weight loss may reinforce unhealthy behaviors, assessing for impulsive eating is not addressing the underlying triggers, and exploring needs for health teaching is not as immediate and targeted as identifying triggers for binge eating.
A 5-year-old presents with a history of urgency of micturition, occasional enuresis, and a slight, non-offensive vaginal discharge for 3 months. She has had no vaginal bleeding. Examination reveals some reddening of the labia majora. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Trichomonal infection.
- B. Gonorrhoea.
- C. Cystitis.
- D. Non-specific vulvo-vaginitis.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Non-specific vulvo-vaginitis (E) is common in young girls due to hygiene or irritation, causing these symptoms. Trichomonas (A) and gonorrhoea (B) are rare without sexual history, cystitis (C) lacks vaginal signs, and foreign body (D) typically causes bleeding or foul discharge.
Which of the following are considered red flags for a communication disorder?
- A. Speech onset at 24 months, lack of pointing to indicate needs, and poor eye contact
- B. Short attention, odd intonation of speech, and poor pretend play
- C. Lack of pointing to show interests or needs, poor eye contact, and reduced joint attention
- D. Weak vocabulary, reduced joint attention, and poor interaction with peers
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Red flags for communication disorders include lack of pointing to show interests/needs, poor eye contact, and reduced joint attention, as these indicate deficits in social communication, per developmental guidelines.
The psychiatric-mental health nurse knows that the patient's spouse clearly understands the adverse effects of lithium carbonate (Eskalith), when they say:
- A. I should call the doctor if my spouse shakes badly'
- B. I should make sure my spouse drinks as much water as possible'
- C. My spouse must remain on a salt-free diet'
- D. When the lithium level is 1.6mEq\L, my spouse can go back to work'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tremors are a common lithium side effect requiring medical attention; other options reflect misunderstanding (e.g., salt-free diet increases toxicity risk, 1.6mEq\L is toxic).
The client in whom schizophrenia has been diagnosed usually is medicated with an ____ drug.
- A. Antianxiety
- B. Antipsychotic
- C. Antidepressant
- D. Antihypertensive
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Antipsychotic. Antipsychotic drugs are specifically designed to treat symptoms associated with schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. These drugs help regulate dopamine levels in the brain, which are often imbalanced in individuals with schizophrenia. Antianxiety drugs (A) are not typically used to treat schizophrenia as they target different symptoms. Antidepressants (C) may be used in conjunction with antipsychotics, but they are not the primary treatment for schizophrenia. Antihypertensive drugs (D) are used to treat high blood pressure and are not indicated for schizophrenia.