Nokea
What is an essential skill for nurses in community health?
- A. Providing direct patient care
- B. Advocating for patients' health needs
- C. Educating about health promotion
- D. Managing chronic conditions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Advocating for patients' health needs. Nurses in community health must advocate for their patients to ensure they receive proper care and resources. This involves understanding individual needs, navigating healthcare systems, and promoting health equity. Providing direct patient care (A) is important but not specific to community health. Educating about health promotion (C) is crucial, but advocacy encompasses a broader scope of support. Managing chronic conditions (D) is essential, but advocacy involves addressing various health needs beyond just chronic conditions.
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What is a primary objective of public health?
- A. Lowering the prevalence of chronic diseases
- B. Eliminating health disparities among populations
- C. Delivering health education
- D. Extending life expectancy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eliminating health disparities among populations. This is the primary objective of public health as it focuses on ensuring that all individuals have equal access to healthcare and resources to achieve optimal health outcomes. By addressing disparities, public health aims to promote health equity and reduce inequalities in health status. Lowering chronic diseases (A) and extending life expectancy (D) are important goals but not the primary objective. Delivering health education (C) is a strategy within public health but not the main objective.
You are preparing a patient for surgery and completing the preoperative checklist. Which of the following is not typically part of the preoperative checklist?
- A. Assessing for allergies
- B. Conducting the Time Out
- C. Ensuring that informed consent is signed
- D. Ensuring that the history and physical examination have been completed
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Conducting the Time Out is typically part of the surgical safety checklist during the actual surgery, not the preoperative checklist.
2. Assessing for allergies is important to prevent adverse reactions during surgery.
3. Ensuring informed consent is signed is crucial for legal and ethical reasons.
4. Ensuring history and physical examination are completed helps in assessing the patient's health status before surgery.
Therefore, choice B is not typically part of the preoperative checklist, making it the correct answer.
What procedure is performed prior to a blood transfusion to detect incompatibilities?
- A. Grouping and crossmatching
- B. Complete blood count
- C. D-dimer test
- D. Blood clotting test
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Grouping and crossmatching. This procedure involves determining the patient's blood type (grouping) and testing for compatibility with the donor blood (crossmatching). It ensures that the recipient receives compatible blood, minimizing the risk of transfusion reactions.
B: Complete blood count is not specific to detecting incompatibilities for transfusions.
C: D-dimer test is used to detect blood clotting disorders, not blood transfusion incompatibilities.
D: Blood clotting test assesses the ability of blood to clot, not compatibility for transfusions.
Which action represents a primary prevention strategy?
- A. Educating children on the importance of handwashing
- B. Administering vaccines to prevent disease
- C. Screening for early signs of disease
- D. Providing treatment for acute illnesses
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, administering vaccines to prevent disease. This is a primary prevention strategy as it aims to prevent the occurrence of disease before it occurs. Vaccines stimulate the immune system to produce an immune response against specific pathogens, reducing the risk of infection and transmission. Educating children on handwashing (A) is important for hygiene but falls under health promotion, not primary prevention. Screening for early signs of disease (C) is secondary prevention, aiming to detect disease at an early stage to prevent complications. Providing treatment for acute illnesses (D) is tertiary prevention, focusing on managing and minimizing the impact of existing conditions.
Which is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?
- A. Administering immunizations to prevent disease
- B. Conducting health screenings to detect early signs of disease
- C. Providing rehabilitation services to prevent complications
- D. Educating the public about healthy lifestyle choices
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat diseases at an early stage.
2. Health screenings help identify early signs of disease before symptoms appear.
3. Early detection allows for prompt intervention to prevent disease progression.
4. Administering immunizations (A) is an example of primary prevention.
5. Providing rehabilitation services (C) is an example of tertiary prevention.
6. Educating the public (D) focuses on promoting healthy behaviors, also a primary prevention strategy.
Summary:
Option B is correct as it aligns with the goal of secondary prevention by detecting diseases early. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they represent primary prevention, tertiary prevention, and health promotion strategies, respectively.