What is an ideal goal of treatment set by the nurse in the care plan for a client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema?
- A. Maintaining oxygen saturation above 92%
- B. Absence of crackles and wheezes in lung sounds
- C. Maintaining a balanced intake and output
- D. Absence of shortness of breath at rest
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The ideal goal of treatment for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema is to maintain a balanced intake and output. This helps in achieving optimal fluid balance, enabling the heart to eject blood effectively without increasing pressure in the left ventricle and pulmonary vessels. While maintaining oxygen saturation above 92% is important for adequate tissue oxygenation, the primary focus in this scenario is fluid balance. Absence of crackles and wheezes in lung sounds is important to assess for pulmonary status, but it is not the primary goal to prevent pulmonary edema specifically. Similarly, absence of shortness of breath at rest is a relevant goal, but the emphasis in CKD management is on fluid balance to prevent pulmonary complications.
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After educating a client with stress incontinence, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching?
- A. I will limit my total intake of fluids.
- B. I must avoid drinking alcoholic beverages.
- C. I must avoid drinking caffeinated beverages.
- D. I shall try to lose about 10% of my body weight.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Limiting fluids can worsen stress incontinence by concentrating urine and irritating tissues, leading to increased incontinence. Adequate hydration is important to maintain bladder health and function. Choices B and C are correct as avoiding alcoholic and caffeinated beverages can help reduce bladder irritation. Choice D is also correct as losing about 10% of body weight can help reduce intra-abdominal pressure, which is beneficial in managing stress incontinence.
The nurse is preparing to administer trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to a patient who is being treated for a urinary tract infection. The nurse learns that the patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus and takes a sulfonylurea oral antidiabetic drug. The nurse will monitor this patient closely for which effect?
- A. Headaches
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Superinfection
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a patient takes oral antidiabetic agents (sulfonylurea) along with sulfonamides like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, it can lead to an increased hypoglycemic effect. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient closely for hypoglycemia. Headaches, hypertension, and superinfection are not typically associated with the interaction between sulfonamides and sulfonylureas. Examples of antidiabetic sulfonylurea medications include glipizide, glimepiride, glyburide, tolazamide, and tolbutamide.
A client is experiencing diarrhea. For which acid-base disorder should the nurse assess the client?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client experiences diarrhea, the loss of bicarbonate-rich fluids from the body leads to a decrease in the bicarbonate levels in the blood, resulting in metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis (choice B) is characterized by an increase in bicarbonate levels, which is not typically associated with diarrhea. Respiratory acidosis (choice C) is caused by retention of carbon dioxide, while respiratory alkalosis (choice D) results from excessive exhalation of carbon dioxide, neither of which are directly related to diarrhea. Therefore, the correct answer is metabolic acidosis (choice A) in the context of diarrhea.
A client has just returned to the nursing unit after computerized tomography (CT) with contrast medium. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take as part of routine after-care for this client?
- A. Administering a laxative
- B. Encouraging fluid intake
- C. Maintaining the client on strict bed rest
- D. Holding all medications for at least 2 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After CT scanning with contrast medium, the client does not require special restrictions or interventions. Encouraging fluid intake is important to help flush out the contrast dye and prevent dehydration. Administering a laxative (Choice A) is unnecessary and not indicated after CT with contrast. Maintaining the client on strict bed rest (Choice C) is not necessary unless specified by the healthcare provider. Holding all medications for at least 2 hours (Choice D) is not a standard practice after CT with contrast.
A client is being prepared for transfer to the operating room. Which of the following actions should the nurse take in the care of this client at this time?
- A. Ensuring that the client has voided
- B. Administering all daily medications
- C. Practicing postoperative breathing exercises
- D. Verifying that the client has not eaten for the last 24 hours
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should ensure that the client has voided, especially if a Foley catheter is not in place. This step is important to prevent urinary retention during the surgical procedure. Administering all daily medications just before surgery is not standard practice. The physician typically provides specific orders regarding which medications can be taken with a sip of water before surgery. Postoperative breathing exercises are usually taught after surgery to prevent complications like atelectasis. Verifying that the client has not eaten for the last 24 hours is not a standard preoperative practice; instead, the client is usually instructed to fast for a specific period before surgery to reduce the risk of aspiration during anesthesia.