Nokea
What is an important consideration regarding TPN administration?
- A. IV site is kept aseptic while infusing the solution
- B. Feeding is poured into a pouch and then infused
- C. Solution is only hung for a maximum of 8 hours at a time
- D. New formula is added as needed so the line does not run dry
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Aseptic technique prevents infection at IV site.
2. TPN is a high-risk solution, requiring strict aseptic administration.
3. Contaminated site can lead to sepsis or other serious complications.
4. Choice B increases risk of contamination.
5. Choice C increases risk of bacterial growth.
6. Choice D may introduce air or contamination.
Summary:
Choice A is correct as it emphasizes infection prevention. Choices B, C, and D pose risks of contamination, bacterial growth, or air introduction.
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Maintaining the infusion rate of hyperalimentation solutions is a nursing responsibility. What side effects would you anticipate from too rapid infusion rate?
- A. Cellular dehydration and potassium
- B. Hypoglycemia and hypovolemia
- C. Potassium excess and CHF
- D. Circulatory overload and hypoglycemia SITUATION: In the recall of the fluids and electrolytes, the nurse should be able to understand the calculations and other conditions related to loss or retention.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Rapid infusion of hyperalimentation solutions can lead to circulatory overload due to increased fluid volume in the circulatory system.
2. Circulatory overload can result in symptoms such as hypertension, tachycardia, and edema.
3. Hypoglycemia can occur as a result of excess insulin release due to the sudden increase in glucose from the hyperalimentation solution.
Summary:
A. Cellular dehydration and potassium: Incorrect. Rapid infusion would lead to fluid overload, not dehydration.
B. Hypoglycemia and hypovolemia: Incorrect. Hypovolemia is unlikely with rapid infusion, and hypoglycemia is a possible side effect.
C. Potassium excess and CHF: Incorrect. Rapid infusion may cause circulatory overload, not CHF, and potassium excess is not a common side effect.
D. Circulatory overload and hypoglycemia: Correct. These are the most likely side effects of rapid
Which of the ff is a reason for providing early discharge instructions and making arrangements for home care for clients undergoing mastectomy?
- A. The adverse effect of mastectomy are immediate
- B. The wound of the surgery is highly contagious and the client should exercise isolation precautions immediately after the procedure
- C. Most clients are not hospitalized long after a mastectomy
- D. The suicidal tendencies in the women undergoing a mastectomy are high
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Most clients are not hospitalized long after a mastectomy - Correct. This is because mastectomy is often performed as an outpatient procedure, and clients are discharged home shortly after surgery.
Step 2: The adverse effects of mastectomy are not immediate - Incorrect. Adverse effects may occur post-surgery, but early discharge is not solely due to immediate adverse effects.
Step 3: The wound of the surgery is not highly contagious - Incorrect. Mastectomy wounds are not contagious, and isolation precautions are not necessary.
Step 4: Suicidal tendencies in women undergoing mastectomy are not high - Incorrect. While emotional support is crucial, early discharge is not primarily due to suicidal tendencies.
Summary: Choice C is correct because mastectomy clients are typically not hospitalized long, making early discharge instructions and home care arrangements necessary. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the primary reason for early discharge and home care planning.
A client has been receiving chemotherapy to treat cancer. Which assessment finding suggests that the client has developed stomatitis (inflammation of the mouth)?
- A. White, cottage cheese-like patches on the
- B. Red, open sores on the oral mucosa
- C. Rust-colored sputum
- D. Yellow tooth discoloration
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because red, open sores on the oral mucosa are a common sign of stomatitis, which can be caused by chemotherapy. Stomatitis is characterized by inflammation and ulceration of the mouth lining. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: White, cottage cheese-like patches are indicative of oral thrush, a fungal infection.
C: Rust-colored sputum may indicate a respiratory condition or infection, not stomatitis.
D: Yellow tooth discoloration is not typically associated with stomatitis, but can be caused by various factors such as poor oral hygiene or certain foods.
A client is hospitalized with oat cell carcinoma of the lung. To manage severe pain, the physician prescribes a continuous I.V. infusion of morphine. Which formula should the nurse use to check that the morphine dose is appropriate for the client?
- A. 1 mg/kg of body weight
- B. 5 mg/70kg of body weight
- C. 5 mg/kg of body weight
- D. 10mg/70kg of body weight
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct formula to calculate the appropriate morphine dose for the client is 5 mg/kg of body weight. This is the most suitable formula because morphine dosing is typically based on weight to ensure appropriate pain management and to prevent adverse effects. By using this formula, the nurse can calculate the exact dose based on the client's weight, providing personalized care.
Choice A (1 mg/kg of body weight) is too low of a dose and may not effectively manage severe pain. Choice B (5 mg/70kg of body weight) is not ideal as it does not account for variations in weight among individuals. Choice D (10mg/70kg of body weight) would result in an overdose for most patients, potentially causing serious harm.
Therefore, by using the formula of 5 mg/kg of body weight, the nurse can ensure that the morphine dose is appropriate and safe for the client.
During the physical assessment, the nurse recalls that the areas most frequently affected by multiple sclerosis are the:
- A. Lateral, 3rd and 4th ventricles
- B. Pons medulla and cerebral peduncles
- C. Optic nerve and chiasm
- D. Above areas
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Choice C (Correct Answer):
1. Multiple sclerosis (MS) commonly affects the optic nerve and chiasm.
2. MS is characterized by demyelination of nerves, leading to visual disturbances.
3. Optic nerve involvement results in vision problems, such as blurred vision.
4. Chiasm involvement can cause visual field deficits and color perception changes.
Summary of Other Choices:
A: Lateral, 3rd, and 4th ventricles - Incorrect. MS primarily affects the central nervous system, not ventricles.
B: Pons, medulla, and cerebral peduncles - Incorrect. While these areas are part of the brainstem, they are not commonly affected in MS.
D: Above areas - Incorrect. This choice is vague and does not specify any specific areas affected by MS.