Nokea
What is the antidote for Warfarin?
- A. Naloxone
- B. Vitamin K
- C. Glucagon
- D. Vitamin B
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct antidote for Warfarin is Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Administering Vitamin K helps reverse its effects by replenishing these factors. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, Glucagon is used to treat severe low blood sugar, and Vitamin B is not the antidote for Warfarin.
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A client with breast cancer is being taught about Tamoxifen. Which of the following adverse effects of tamoxifen should the client be informed about?
- A. Irregular heart rhythm
- B. Abnormal uterine bleeding
- C. Yellowing of the sclera or dark-colored urine
- D. Difficulty swallowing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Abnormal uterine bleeding is a known adverse effect of tamoxifen. It is important to educate the client about this side effect as those taking tamoxifen are at an increased risk for endometrial cancer. Any abnormal uterine bleeding should be promptly reported and evaluated by healthcare providers to ensure timely management and monitoring. The other options, such as irregular heart rhythm, yellowing of the sclera or dark-colored urine, and difficulty swallowing, are not typically associated with tamoxifen use and are not commonly reported adverse effects. Therefore, they are not the priority adverse effects to inform the client about.
A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which statement by the client indicates an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. I can walk a mile a day.
- B. I've had a backache for several days.
- C. I am urinating more frequently.
- D. I feel nauseated and have no appetite.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
The following are first-line drugs for hypertension in diabetics with proteinuria:
- A. Lisinopril
- B. Losartan
- C. Amlodipine
- D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Recent studies into the pathogenesis of halothane-induced malignant hyperthermia indicate which of the following as the likely implicating cause?
- A. Drug toxicity
- B. Excitation-contraction coupling defect
- C. Myoplasmic sodium defect
- D. Oxygen-hemoglobin concentration deficit
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Malignant hyperthermia (MH) from halothane involves excitation-contraction coupling defects . MH, a genetic disorder, stems from ryanodine receptor (RYR1) mutations, causing uncontrolled calcium release in muscle, not drug toxicity . Sodium defects , oxygen deficits , or neural overmodulation (E) aren't implicated. This coupling defect triggers hypermetabolism, explaining MH's rapid onset with halothane exposure.
What nursing interventions should you perform when a patient is on Albuterol? (Select all that apply)
- A. Assess lung sounds, pulse, and blood pressure before administering
- B. Monitor for changes in behavior
- C. Observe for paradoxical bronchospasms
- D. Both A and C
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct nursing interventions to perform when a patient is on Albuterol include assessing the patient's lung sounds, pulse, and blood pressure before administering the medication to monitor for cardiovascular side effects like increased heart rate. Additionally, it is crucial to observe for paradoxical bronchospasms, a rare but serious adverse reaction where the medication causes a worsening of bronchospasm instead of relief. Monitoring for changes in behavior is not directly related to Albuterol administration and is not a standard nursing intervention for patients receiving this medication, making choice B incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it includes the essential nursing actions for patients on Albuterol.