What is the appropriate nursing action for a child with increased intracranial pressure?
- A. Head of bed elevated 45 degrees with child's head maintained in a neutral position
- B. Child lying flat
- C. Head turned to side
- D. Frequent visitation for stimulation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees with a neutral head position promotes venous drainage, reducing intracranial pressure.
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A 16-year-old client with a diagnosis of oppositional defiant disorder is threatening violence toward another child. In managing a potentially violent client, the nurse:
- A. Must use the least restrictive measure possible to control the behavior
- B. Should put the client in seclusion until he promises to behave appropriately
- C. Should apply full restraints until the behavior is under control
- D. Should allow other clients to observe the acting out so that they can learn from the experience
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This answer is correct. Least restrictive measures should always be attempted before a client is placed in seclusion or restraints. The nurse should first try a calm verbal approach, suggest a quiet room, or request that the client take 'time-out' before placing the client in seclusion, giving medication as necessary, or restraining. This answer is incorrect. A calm verbal approach or requesting that a client go to his room should be attempted before restraining. This answer is incorrect. Restraints should be applied only after all other measures fail to control the behavior. (D Seniors) This answer is incorrect. Other clients should be removed from the area. It is often very anxiety producing for other clients to see a peer out of control. It could also lead to mass acting-out behaviors.
The client presents to the clinic with a serum cholesterol of 275 mg/dL and is placed on rosuvastatin (Crestor). Which instruction should be given to the client taking rosuvastatin (Crestor)?
- A. Report unexplained muscle weakness to the physician
- B. Allow six months for the drug to take effect
- C. Take the medication with fruit juice
- D. Report difficulty sleeping
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rosuvastatin a statin can cause myopathy or rhabdomyolysis. Unexplained muscle weakness is a serious side effect requiring immediate reporting to prevent complications. The other options are not specific to rosuvastatin therapy.
A 35-year-old client has returned to her room following surgery on her right femur. She has an IV of D5 in one-half normal saline infusing at 125 mL/hr and is receiving morphine sulfate 10-15 mg IM q4h prn for pain. She last voided 5-1/2 hours ago when she was given her preoperative medication. In monitoring and promoting return of urinary function after surgery, the nurse would:
- A. Provide food and fluids at the client's request
- B. Maintain IV, increasing the rate hourly until the client voids
- C. Report to the surgeon if the client is unable to void within 8 hours of surgery
- D. Hold morphine sulfate injections for pain until the client voids, explaining to her that morphine sulfate can cause urinary retention
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Provision of food and fluid promotes bowel elimination. Nutritional needs postoperatively are determined by the physician, not the client. Increasing IV fluids postoperatively will not cause a client to void. Any change in rate of administration of IV fluids should be determined by the physician. The postoperative client with normal kidney function who cannot void 8 hours after surgery is retaining urine. The client may need catheterization or medication. The physician must provide orders for both as necessary. Although morphine sulfate can cause urinary retention, withholding pain medication will not ensure that the client will void. The client with uncontrolled pain will probably not be able to void.
A client with a history of phenylketonuria is seen at the local family planning clinic. After completing the client's intake history, the nurse provides literature for a healthy pregnancy. Which statement indicates that the client needs further teaching?
- A. I can help control my weight by switching from sugar to Nutrasweet.
- B. I need to resume my old diet before becoming pregnant.
- C. I need to eliminate most sources of phenylalanine from my diet.
- D. Fresh fruits and raw vegetables will make excellent between-meal snacks.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nutrasweet (aspartame) contains phenylalanine, which is harmful in phenylketonuria, so this statement indicates a need for further teaching.
On the first postpartal day, a client tells the nurse that she has been changing her perineal pads every 1/2 hour because they are saturated with bright red vaginal drainage. When palpating the uterus, the nurse assesses that it is somewhat soft, 1 fingerbreadth above the umbilicus, and midline. The nursing action to be taken is to:
- A. Gently massage the uterus until firm, express any clots, and note the amount and character of lochia
- B. Catheterize the client and reassess the uterus
- C. Begin IV fluids and administer oxytocic medication
- D. Administer analgesics as ordered to relieve discomfort
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Gentle massage and expression of clots will let the fundus return to a state of firmness, allowing the uterus to function as the 'living ligature.' A distended bladder may promote uterine atony; however, after determining the bladder is distended, the nurse would have the client void. Catheterization is only done if normal bladder function has not returned. Oxytocic medications are ordered and administered if the uterus does not remain contracted after gentle massage and determining if the bladder is empty. The client is not complaining of discomfort or pain; therefore, analgesics are not necessary.
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