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What is the classification for the drug valproate?
- A. Anti-diabetic
- B. Anti-convulsant
- C. Anti-ulcer agent
- D. Anti-hypertensive
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Valproate is classified as an anticonvulsant. It is commonly used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain. Therefore, the correct classification for valproate is as an anticonvulsant. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because valproate is not used to treat diabetes, ulcers, or hypertension.
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Which of the following drugs has a therapeutic effect that increases cardiac output and slows heart rate?
- A. Heparin
- B. Alprazolam
- C. Digoxin
- D. Levothyroxine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Digoxin is the correct answer. It is a medication known for its positive inotropic effects, which increase cardiac output, and negative chronotropic effects, which slow the heart rate. These effects are achieved by inhibiting the sodium-potassium ATPase pump in myocardial cells. Therefore, Digoxin is commonly prescribed to manage conditions like heart failure and atrial fibrillation, where enhancing cardiac output and reducing heart rate are beneficial. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Heparin is an anticoagulant, Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety disorders, and Levothyroxine is a thyroid hormone replacement drug, none of which have the specified therapeutic effects on cardiac function.
When administering Phenytoin, what should you monitor?
- A. Behavior
- B. Therapeutic blood levels
- C. For signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When administering Phenytoin, monitoring the patient's behavior is important to assess for any changes that may indicate adverse effects. Monitoring therapeutic blood levels helps ensure the medication is within the effective range and not causing toxicity. Additionally, being vigilant for signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a severe skin reaction associated with Phenytoin use, is crucial for early detection and intervention. Therefore, monitoring behavior, therapeutic blood levels, and for signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome are all essential when administering Phenytoin.
A client has a new prescription for Sulfasalazine for the treatment of Crohn's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Expect orange-yellow discoloration of urine and skin.
- B. Take the medication with food.
- C. Do not discontinue the medication if a sore throat occurs.
- D. Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Expect orange-yellow discoloration of urine and skin.' Sulfasalazine can cause this harmless side effect, which does not require discontinuation of the medication. Option B is incorrect because Sulfasalazine is usually taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Option C is incorrect as a sore throat is not a common reason to stop the medication. Option D is not directly related to the side effects of Sulfasalazine.
A client has a new prescription for a combination of oral NRTIs (abacavir, lamivudine, and zidovudine) for the treatment of HIV. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?
- A. These medications work by blocking HIV entry into cells.
- B. These medications work by weakening the cell wall of the HIV virus.
- C. These medications work by inhibiting enzymes to prevent HIV replication.
- D. These medications work by preventing protein synthesis within the HIV cell.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The NRTI antiretroviral medications this client is prescribed work by inhibiting the enzyme reverse transcriptase, thus preventing HIV replication. By inhibiting this crucial enzyme, the drug interferes with the virus's ability to replicate and spread in the body. Choice A is incorrect because NRTIs do not block HIV entry into cells. Choice B is incorrect as NRTIs do not weaken the cell wall of the virus. Choice D is incorrect as NRTIs do not prevent protein synthesis within the HIV cell.
A healthcare professional in a provider's clinic is caring for a client who reports erectile dysfunction and requests a prescription for sildenafil. Which of the following medications currently prescribed for the client is a contraindication to taking sildenafil?
- A. Isosorbide
- B. Phenytoin
- C. Metronidazole
- D. Prednisone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sildenafil is contraindicated with nitrates like isosorbide due to the risk of severe hypotension. Isosorbide is a nitrate that can potentiate the hypotensive effects of sildenafil, leading to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Therefore, it is essential to avoid concurrent use of isosorbide and sildenafil to prevent adverse effects. Phenytoin, metronidazole, and prednisone do not have significant interactions with sildenafil and are not contraindicated when used together.