Nokea
What is the first medication to give for wheezing due to an allergic reaction?
- A. Albuterol via nebulizer
- B. Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer
- C. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
- D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Albuterol is the first-line medication for treating wheezing due to an allergic reaction. Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist that helps relieve bronchospasm quickly. Cromolyn is more commonly used for the prevention of asthma symptoms rather than for acute treatment. Methylprednisolone and aminophylline are not the first-line medications for acute wheezing due to an allergic reaction.
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What are the expected signs in a patient with compartment syndrome?
- A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
- B. Fever and infection
- C. Localized redness and swelling
- D. Loss of sensation in the affected area
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with compartment syndrome, the classic signs include unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These signs indicate compromised circulation and neurovascular function in the affected compartment. Fever and infection (Choice B) are not typical signs of compartment syndrome. Localized redness and swelling (Choice C) can be seen in other conditions like cellulitis but are not specific to compartment syndrome. Loss of sensation in the affected area (Choice D) may occur in some cases but is not as specific or consistent as unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness in diagnosing compartment syndrome.
What is the priority intervention for a patient with unstable angina?
- A. Administer nitroglycerin
- B. Establish IV access
- C. Auscultate heart sounds
- D. Administer aspirin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is the priority intervention for a patient with unstable angina as it helps dilate blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, relieve chest pain, and prevent further cardiac damage. Establishing IV access (choice B) may be important but is not the priority over administering nitroglycerin in this scenario. Auscultating heart sounds (choice C) and administering aspirin (choice D) are also important aspects of managing unstable angina, but they are not the immediate priority intervention when a patient is experiencing chest pain.
A client has a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA). What should the nurse teach?
- A. Avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime
- B. Consume liquids between meals
- C. Eat large meals to increase caloric intake
- D. Avoid liquids to prevent aspiration
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime. For a client with a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA), it is crucial to avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime to reduce reflux that can worsen symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because consuming liquids between meals is not specifically related to managing TIA. Choice C is incorrect as eating large meals may not be recommended, especially if the client needs to watch their caloric intake. Choice D is incorrect because avoiding liquids entirely can lead to dehydration and is not a standard recommendation for TIA management.
What is the correct response when a patient receiving an enema reports abdominal cramping?
- A. Lower the height of the enema container
- B. Stop the enema procedure
- C. Remove the enema tubing
- D. Continue the enema at a slower rate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct response when a patient receiving an enema reports abdominal cramping is to lower the height of the enema container. Lowering the height reduces the flow rate, which can help relieve cramping. Stopping the procedure (choice B) may not be necessary if adjusting the height resolves the issue. Removing the enema tubing (choice C) is not the initial step to take when addressing abdominal cramping during an enema. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (choice D) might not be as effective as lowering the height of the container to alleviate cramping.
What are the expected symptoms in a patient with a thrombotic stroke?
- A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
- B. Sudden loss of consciousness
- C. Severe headache and confusion
- D. Loss of sensation in the affected limb
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A thrombotic stroke typically presents with a gradual loss of function on one side of the body. This gradual onset distinguishes it from a hemorrhagic stroke, which often manifests with sudden and severe symptoms like loss of consciousness (choice B), severe headache and confusion (choice C), or loss of sensation in the affected limb (choice D). Therefore, choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with thrombotic strokes.