Nokea
What is the first medication to give to a patient with an allergic reaction causing wheezing?
- A. Albuterol 3 ml via nebulizer
- B. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
- C. Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer
- D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol 3 ml via nebulizer. Albuterol is a fast-acting bronchodilator that helps relieve wheezing by relaxing the muscles in the airways, making it the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by bronchospasms in allergic reactions. Methylprednisolone (Choice B) is a corticosteroid used for its anti-inflammatory properties and is typically given after bronchodilators. Cromolyn (Choice C) is a mast cell stabilizer that is used for the prevention of asthma symptoms, not for immediate relief. Aminophylline (Choice D) is a bronchodilator that is less commonly used nowadays due to its narrow therapeutic window and potential for toxicity.
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What teaching should be provided to a patient following cataract surgery?
- A. Avoid NSAIDs
- B. Wear dark glasses outdoors
- C. Creamy white drainage is normal
- D. Avoid alcohol
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct teaching to provide to a patient following cataract surgery is to avoid NSAIDs. NSAIDs should be avoided post-cataract surgery to reduce the risk of bleeding. Choice B, wearing dark glasses outdoors, is important to protect the eyes from bright light but is not directly related to medication use. Choice C, stating that creamy white drainage is normal, is incorrect as drainage should be monitored for excessive redness, swelling, or pain. Choice D, avoiding alcohol, is not a direct post-cataract surgery teaching point related to medication use.
What signs indicate increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?
- A. Restlessness, irritability, and confusion
- B. Sudden onset of seizures
- C. Bradycardia and altered pupil response
- D. Loss of consciousness
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Restlessness, irritability, and confusion are early signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP). These symptoms occur due to the brain's increased pressure within the skull. Sudden onset of seizures (Choice B) is not typically associated with increased intracranial pressure. Bradycardia and altered pupil response (Choice C) are signs of advanced or worsening IICP. Loss of consciousness (Choice D) is a late sign of increased intracranial pressure.
What is the purpose of an escharotomy in burn management?
- A. To relieve pressure and improve circulation in burn injuries
- B. To remove necrotic tissue from a wound
- C. To prevent infection in burn injuries
- D. To remove excess fluid from burn wounds
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An escharotomy is performed to relieve pressure in areas affected by deep burns and improve circulation. This procedure involves making incisions through the eschar (burned and dead tissue) to release constricting tissue and allow for the return of blood flow. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of necrotic tissue is typically done through debridement, not escharotomy. Choice C is incorrect because preventing infection in burn injuries is usually achieved through proper wound care and antibiotic therapy, not escharotomy. Choice D is incorrect because removing excess fluid from burn wounds is managed through methods like fluid resuscitation and monitoring, not escharotomy.
A patient who received an enema reports abdominal cramping. What should the nurse do?
- A. Increase the flow of the enema solution
- B. Lower the height of the enema solution container
- C. Remove the enema tubing
- D. Stop the procedure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a patient who received an enema reports abdominal cramping, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. This adjustment can help reduce the cramping by slowing down the flow of the solution into the colon, allowing the patient to tolerate the procedure better. Increasing the flow of the solution (Choice A) can exacerbate the cramping. Removing the enema tubing (Choice C) or stopping the procedure (Choice D) may not address the issue and could lead to incomplete treatment.
What are the priority lab values to monitor in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Hemoglobin levels
- D. Serum albumin levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 count below 180 cells/mm3 is considered severe immunocompromise and requires close monitoring and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values to monitor in HIV patients. While white blood cell count, hemoglobin levels, and serum albumin levels can provide valuable information about the patient's health status, they are not as specific or indicative of HIV disease progression and management as the CD4 T-cell count.