Nokea
What is the homeostatic cellular transport mechanism that moves water from a hypotonic to a hypertonic fluid space?
- A. Filtration
- B. Diffusion
- C. Osmosis
- D. Active transport
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Osmosis. Osmosis is the homeostatic cellular transport mechanism that moves water from a hypotonic to a hypertonic fluid space to maintain cellular balance. In osmosis, water moves across a semi-permeable membrane from an area of low solute concentration (hypotonic) to an area of high solute concentration (hypertonic). This process helps regulate the water content inside cells. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Filtration involves the movement of solutes and solvents through a membrane due to a pressure difference, diffusion is the movement of solutes from an area of high concentration to low concentration, and active transport requires energy to move substances against their concentration gradient.
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The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder who has been prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). What is the most important teaching point?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Expect to see improvement within 24 hours.
- C. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- D. Report any thoughts of self-harm immediately.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Report any thoughts of self-harm immediately.' Clients prescribed SSRIs should be educated to report any thoughts of self-harm promptly, as these medications can initially increase suicidal ideation. Choice A is incorrect because SSRIs are usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice B is incorrect as it takes several weeks for SSRIs to reach their full effectiveness. Choice C is irrelevant to SSRI therapy.
A client with a diagnosis of chronic heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What is the most important assessment before administering this medication?
- A. Check blood pressure
- B. Assess heart rate
- C. Monitor respiratory rate
- D. Measure oxygen saturation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the heart rate before administering digoxin. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia, making it crucial to evaluate the heart rate to prevent potential complications. Checking blood pressure (Choice A) is important but not as critical as assessing the heart rate in this context. Monitoring respiratory rate (Choice C) and measuring oxygen saturation (Choice D) are not the most crucial assessments before administering digoxin, as the primary concern with this medication is its impact on heart rate.
A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia.
- B. Hyponatremia.
- C. Hypocalcemia.
- D. Hypokalemia.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.
The nurse is caring for a postoperative client who is reluctant to ambulate. What strategy should the nurse use to encourage the client?
- A. Explain the benefits of ambulation for recovery
- B. Wait for the client to request to walk
- C. Tell the client that walking is necessary for discharge
- D. Offer pain medication before walking
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct strategy for the nurse to encourage the postoperative client to ambulate is to explain the benefits of ambulation for recovery. Educating the client on how ambulation aids in preventing complications and promotes faster recovery can motivate their participation. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for the client to request to walk may lead to delays in mobilization. Choice C is incorrect as it may induce unnecessary fear in the client. Choice D is incorrect as offering pain medication before walking does not address the client's reluctance to ambulate.
The nurse is caring for a client with an intravenous infusion of normal saline. The client reports pain and swelling at the IV site. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Slow the rate of infusion
- B. Apply a warm compress to the site
- C. Discontinue the IV infusion
- D. Elevate the affected arm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to discontinue the IV infusion (Choice C). Pain and swelling at the IV site can indicate infiltration or phlebitis, which are serious complications that require immediate action. Slowing the rate of infusion (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue and can potentially worsen the condition. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to discontinue the infusion. Elevating the affected arm (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; discontinuing the infusion takes precedence to prevent further harm.