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What is the initial action the nurse should take for a client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) and is experiencing restlessness, agitation, and an increased respiratory rate?
- A. Administer oxygen.
- B. Administer morphine sulfate.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider.
- D. Take the client's blood pressure.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority action for a client experiencing restlessness, agitation, and an increased respiratory rate after a myocardial infarction (MI). This intervention helps ensure adequate oxygenation, improve cardiac function, and reduce the workload on the heart. Oxygen therapy takes precedence over administering medications like morphine sulfate or notifying the healthcare provider as it addresses the immediate need for oxygenation. Checking the blood pressure is also important but not as urgent as ensuring proper oxygen supply.
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A patient takes an oral medication that causes gastrointestinal upset. The patient asks the primary care NP why the drug information insert cautions against using antacids while taking the drug. The NP should explain that the antacid may:
- A. alter drug absorption.
- B. alter drug distribution.
- C. lead to drug toxicity.
- D. increase stomach upset.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because antacids change gastric pH, affecting drug absorption. Choice B is incorrect as distribution isn’t directly altered. Choice C is wrong since toxicity isn’t the primary concern here. Choice D is inaccurate as antacids typically reduce upset.
A client with myocardial infarction suddenly becomes tachycardic, shows signs of air hunger, and begins coughing frothy, pink-tinged sputum. The nurse listens to breath sounds, expecting to hear which breath sounds bilaterally?
- A. Rhonchi
- B. Crackles
- C. Wheezes
- D. Diminished breath sounds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is exhibiting signs of pulmonary edema, which can occur as a complication of myocardial infarction. Crackles are typically heard in cases of pulmonary edema, characterized by fluid accumulation in the lungs. These crackling sounds are heard during inspiration and sometimes expiration and are an indication of fluid-filled alveoli. Therefore, when assessing the client with these symptoms, the nurse would expect to hear crackles bilaterally. Rhonchi, which are coarse rattling respiratory sounds, are typically associated with conditions like bronchitis or pneumonia, not pulmonary edema. Wheezes are high-pitched musical sounds heard in conditions like asthma or COPD, not commonly present in pulmonary edema. Diminished breath sounds suggest decreased airflow or lung consolidation, not typical findings in pulmonary edema.
The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Complete blood count (CBC)
- D. Fibrinogen level
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.
The client has atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the warfarin therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Complete blood count (CBC)
- D. Fibrinogen levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial for assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent clotting events or bleeding complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) and fibrinogen levels (Choice D) do not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in the same way that PT and INR do.
Reasons for restricted distribution of drugs include:
- A. High cost
- B. Serious safety concerns
- C. Limited supply
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is correct because restricted distribution (e.g., REMS) is primarily for drugs with serious safety risks (e.g., thalidomide), not cost or supply alone. Choice A is incorrect as cost doesn't mandate restriction—insurance handles that. Choice C is wrong because limited supply isn't a REMS trigger. Choice D is incorrect since only B is the core reason.