What is the lowest fasting plasma glucose level suggestive of a diagnosis of DM?
- A. 90 mg/dl.
- B. 115 mg/dl.
- C. 126 mg/dl.
- D. 180 mg/dl.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A fasting plasma glucose level of 126 mg/dl or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. Choice A (90 mg/dl) is too low to indicate diabetes. Choice B (115 mg/dl) is also below the diagnostic threshold for diabetes. Choice D (180 mg/dl) is above the diagnostic threshold and would indicate uncontrolled diabetes, not the lowest level suggestive of a diagnosis.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client with Cushing's syndrome is being assessed by the nurse. Which of the following clinical manifestations is consistent with this condition?
- A. Moon face
- B. Weight loss
- C. Hyperpigmentation
- D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct clinical manifestation consistent with Cushing's syndrome is a 'moon face.' Cushing's syndrome is characterized by fat redistribution, leading to the round and full appearance of the face known as a moon face. Choice B, weight loss, is not common in Cushing's syndrome as patients often experience weight gain. Choice C, hyperpigmentation, is more indicative of Addison's disease, not Cushing's syndrome. Choice D, hypotension, is not typically associated with Cushing's syndrome which often presents with hypertension due to excess cortisol.
A client with hypoparathyroidism is at risk for which of the following complications?
- A. Hypercalcemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypoparathyroidism is characterized by decreased levels of parathyroid hormone, leading to reduced calcium levels in the blood, which results in hypocalcemia. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hypoparathyroidism does not typically lead to hypercalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypernatremia. Hypercalcemia is more commonly associated with hyperparathyroidism, where there is excess secretion of parathyroid hormone.
A client with Graves' disease is prescribed propranolol. The nurse understands that the purpose of this medication is to:
- A. Treat the underlying cause of the disease
- B. Reduce thyroid hormone production
- C. Alleviate symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors
- D. Increase energy levels
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Alleviate symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that helps manage symptoms like tachycardia (fast heart rate) and tremors in patients with Graves' disease. Choice A is incorrect because propranolol does not address the underlying cause of Graves' disease, which is autoimmune in nature. Choice B is incorrect because propranolol does not directly reduce thyroid hormone production; it mainly targets the symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while propranolol may help with symptoms like tachycardia, it is not intended to increase energy levels.
A client with diabetes mellitus is being educated on the importance of foot care. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Soak your feet daily to maintain cleanliness.
- B. Wear tight-fitting shoes to protect your feet.
- C. Apply lotion between your toes to prevent dryness.
- D. Inspect your feet daily for any cuts or sores.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to inspect their feet daily for any cuts or sores. This is crucial for individuals with diabetes as they are at a higher risk of developing foot problems. Soaking feet daily can lead to skin breakdown and infections, making choice A incorrect. Tight-fitting shoes can cause pressure points and increase the risk of foot injuries, so choice B is incorrect. Applying lotion between the toes can create a moist environment, increasing the risk of fungal infections, making choice C incorrect.
Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?
- A. Tetanic contractions
- B. Neck vein distention
- C. Weight loss
- D. Polyuria
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Neck vein distention is a sign of fluid overload, a complication of SIADH due to water retention. Tetanic contractions (Choice A) are not typically associated with SIADH. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a common complication of SIADH, as patients often experience fluid retention and weight gain. Polyuria (Choice D) is also not a typical sign of SIADH, as the condition is characterized by water retention and decreased urine output.