Nokea
What is the main objective of palliative care?
- A. To cure the disease
- B. To provide relief from symptoms and improve quality of life
- C. To extend hospital stays
- D. To focus solely on treatment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The main objective of palliative care is to provide relief from symptoms and improve quality of life. Palliative care focuses on enhancing the quality of life for patients facing serious illnesses by providing relief from symptoms such as pain, stress, and other physical and emotional issues. Choice A is incorrect because palliative care does not aim to cure the disease but rather to manage symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as the goal of palliative care is not to extend hospital stays unnecessarily but to improve the patient's well-being. Choice D is incorrect as palliative care is not solely focused on treatment but takes a holistic approach to care that includes addressing physical, emotional, social, and spiritual needs.
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A client with diabetes experiences Somogyi's effect. To prevent this complication, the nurse should instruct the client to:
- A. Take insulin at 2:00 PM each day
- B. Engage in physical activity daily
- C. Increase the dose of regular insulin
- D. Eat a protein and carbohydrate snack at bedtime
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Somogyi effect, also known as rebound hyperglycemia, occurs as a response to nighttime hypoglycemia. Eating a protein and carbohydrate snack at bedtime can help prevent this by stabilizing blood sugar levels throughout the night. Instructing the client to take insulin at 2:00 PM each day (Choice A) may not directly address the nighttime hypoglycemia concern. Engaging in physical activity daily (Choice B) is generally beneficial for diabetes management but may not specifically prevent Somogyi's effect. Increasing the dose of regular insulin (Choice C) without addressing the nighttime hypoglycemia issue can exacerbate the problem.
Steven John has type 1 diabetes mellitus and receives insulin. Which laboratory test will the nurse assess?
- A. Potassium
- B. AST (aspartate aminotransferase)
- C. Serum amylase
- D. Sodium
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium. Patients with type 1 diabetes receiving insulin are at risk of developing hypokalemia due to insulin's effects on potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because AST, serum amylase, and sodium levels are not directly impacted by insulin therapy in type 1 diabetes and are not the primary concern that needs monitoring in this scenario.
A nurse in the emergency department is assessing a client who is unconscious following a motor-vehicle crash. The client requires immediate surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Transport the client to the operating room without verifying informed consent
- B. Ask the anesthesiologist to sign the consent
- C. Obtain telephone consent from the facility administrator before the surgery
- D. Delay the surgery until the nurse can obtain informed consent
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In emergency situations where a client is unconscious and requires immediate surgery, implied consent applies. Implied consent allows healthcare providers, including nurses, to proceed with necessary treatment or surgery without formally verifying informed consent. Choice A is correct because the priority in this scenario is to ensure the client receives timely medical intervention to address life-threatening conditions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in emergencies, waiting to obtain formal consent can delay critical treatment, risking the client's health and well-being.
A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?
- A. Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath
- B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
- C. Decreased respirations and increased urine output
- D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.
You are performing a neurological assessment of your adolescent patient. The patient has the Moro reflex. How should you interpret this neurological assessment finding?
- A. It is normal among adolescents.
- B. It indicates that the patient has an intact peripheral nervous system.
- C. It indicates that the patient has an intact central nervous system.
- D. It is not a normal finding.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, is typically present in infants up to around 4-6 months of age and is characterized by the infant's response to a sudden loss of support or loud noise. It is not a normal finding in adolescents or older individuals. Therefore, if an adolescent patient exhibits the Moro reflex during a neurological assessment, it is considered abnormal and warrants further evaluation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the Moro reflex is not expected or normal among adolescents and does not specifically indicate the status of either the peripheral or central nervous system in this age group.