Nokea
What is the major criterion for diagnosing cognitive impairment in a child?
- A. An IQ of 75 or less
- B. Subaverage functioning
- C. An IQ of 70 or less
- D. Onset before 18
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct criterion for diagnosing cognitive impairment in a child is having an IQ of 70 or less. This range is typically used to define cognitive impairment in children. Choice A ('An IQ of 75 or less') is incorrect as the threshold is generally set at 70 or below. Choice B ('Subaverage functioning') is vague and does not specifically address the IQ criterion. Choice D ('Onset before 18') is unrelated to the primary criterion of IQ level used in diagnosing cognitive impairment in children.
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What are priority nursing interventions designed to do for a 4-year-old child with cerebral palsy?
- A. Assist with referral to specialized education.
- B. Support the child with independent toileting.
- C. Assist the child to develop effective communication.
- D. Encourage the child to ambulate independently.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Assist the child to develop effective communication.' Children with cerebral palsy often face challenges with communication skills. Therefore, priority nursing interventions aim to help them improve their communication abilities. Choice A is incorrect because while education is important, the priority for a child with cerebral palsy is to address immediate needs. Choice B is incorrect as toileting, although important, is not the priority in this case. Choice D is incorrect as ambulation may not be feasible or the most critical concern for a child with cerebral palsy.
A client with Parkinson's disease is experiencing difficulty swallowing. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent aspiration?
- A. Encourage the client to eat quickly.
- B. Provide a straw for liquids.
- C. Place the client in an upright position during meals.
- D. Offer thin liquids.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Placing the client in an upright position during meals is the correct intervention to prevent aspiration in a client with Parkinson's disease. This position helps facilitate swallowing and reduces the risk of aspiration. Choice A is incorrect because encouraging the client to eat quickly can increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Choice B is not the best option as straws may not prevent aspiration effectively. Choice D is incorrect as thin liquids can actually increase the risk of aspiration in individuals with swallowing difficulties.
Which of the following is a priority assessment for a client receiving intravenous vancomycin?
- A. Respiratory rate
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Urine output
- D. Hearing acuity
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hearing acuity. Vancomycin is known to cause ototoxicity, which can result in hearing loss. Monitoring the client's hearing acuity is crucial to detect any early signs of ototoxicity. Assessing respiratory rate, blood pressure, and urine output are important assessments in general patient care but are not the priority when specifically monitoring for vancomycin-induced ototoxicity.
The nurse prepares a teaching plan for an adult client with metabolic syndrome. Which findings should the nurse address to help the client reduce the risk for diabetes mellitus and vascular disease? (Select all that apply)
- A. Abdominal obesity
- B. Blood pressure of 150/96 mmHg
- C. Increased triglyceride levels
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, as all the listed factors - abdominal obesity, high blood pressure, and increased triglyceride levels - are components of metabolic syndrome. Addressing these findings is crucial to help reduce the client's risk for developing diabetes mellitus and vascular disease. Abdominal obesity is a key feature of metabolic syndrome, high blood pressure (150/96 mmHg) is a risk factor, and increased triglyceride levels are also indicative of the syndrome. Educating the client on lifestyle modifications, such as healthy eating habits, regular physical activity, and monitoring these parameters, is essential in managing metabolic syndrome and preventing associated complications. Choices A, B, and C are all correct, making choice D the correct answer.
A client with chronic heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and has an oxygen saturation of 88%. Which position is most appropriate to improve oxygenation?
- A. Supine with legs elevated
- B. High Fowler's position
- C. Prone with pillows under the chest
- D. Side-lying with head flat
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: High Fowler's position. High Fowler's position is the most appropriate for a client with chronic heart failure experiencing dyspnea and low oxygen saturation. This position helps improve lung expansion and oxygenation by maximizing chest expansion and allowing better ventilation. Choice A, supine with legs elevated, may worsen dyspnea by reducing lung expansion. Choice C, prone with pillows under the chest, is not suitable for a client experiencing dyspnea as it may further compromise breathing. Choice D, side-lying with head flat, does not facilitate optimal lung expansion and is not the best choice for improving oxygenation in this scenario.