Nokea
What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin (Acthar) when prescribed as replacement therapy for a male client who has undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor?
- A. It decreases cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production and affects the metabolic rate of target organs.
- B. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to inhibit enzymatic actions.
- C. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to produce enzymatic actions that affect protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism.
- D. It regulates the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Corticotropin (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and other hormones, affecting protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. Choice A is incorrect because corticotropin does not decrease cAMP production; instead, it stimulates enzymatic actions. Choice B is incorrect because corticotropin does not inhibit enzymatic actions but rather produces enzymatic actions. Choice D is incorrect because corticotropin's mechanism of action does not involve regulating the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.
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A client with DM is scheduled to have surgery. The nurse should plan to:
- A. Give the client a regular diet as ordered.
- B. Hold the client's insulin on the morning of surgery.
- C. Monitor the client's blood glucose level closely during the perioperative period.
- D. Have the client stop taking insulin 48 hours before surgery.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's blood glucose level closely during the perioperative period. This is essential to ensure that the client's blood glucose levels remain within the target range and to prevent complications such as hypo- or hyperglycemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because giving a regular diet as ordered, holding insulin on the morning of surgery, or stopping insulin 48 hours before surgery can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels, posing risks to the client's safety during the surgical procedure.
A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:
- A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
- B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
- C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
- D. Felodipine (Plendil)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.
A female client with hypothyroidism (myxedema) is receiving levothyroxine (Synthroid), 25 mcg P.O. daily. Which finding should Nurse Hans recognize as an adverse drug effect?
- A. Dysuria
- B. Leg cramps
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Blurred vision
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tachycardia is a potential adverse effect of levothyroxine, indicating overmedication. Dysuria (painful urination) is not typically associated with levothyroxine. Leg cramps are not a common adverse effect of levothyroxine. Blurred vision is not a typical adverse effect of levothyroxine; instead, it may be a sign of other eye-related conditions or medication side effects.
The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Encourage increased fluid intake
- B. Administer vasopressin
- C. Monitor for signs of dehydration
- D. Restrict oral fluids
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is to restrict oral fluids. SIADH leads to excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), causing the body to retain water and diluting the sodium levels in the blood (hyponatremia). Restricting oral fluids helps prevent further water retention and worsening hyponatremia. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice A) would exacerbate the problem by further diluting sodium levels. Administering vasopressin (choice B) is not indicated in SIADH, as the condition is characterized by excess ADH secretion. Monitoring for signs of dehydration (choice C) is not the priority in SIADH since the issue is water retention rather than dehydration.
Which instruction about insulin administration should Nurse Kate give to a client?
- A. Always follow the same order when drawing up different insulins into the syringe.
- B. Shake the vials before withdrawing the insulin.
- C. Store unopened vials of insulin in the refrigerator at recommended temperatures.
- D. Discard the intermediate-acting insulin if it appears cloudy.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Consistently following the same order when drawing up different insulins helps to prevent medication errors. Option B is incorrect because shaking insulin vials could cause bubbles to form, leading to inaccurate dosing. Option C is incorrect as insulin should be stored in the refrigerator, not the freezer, to maintain its effectiveness. Option D is incorrect because cloudy appearance in intermediate-acting insulin may indicate the presence of insulin crystals, which can affect its potency, but this does not necessarily mean it should be discarded without consulting a healthcare provider.