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What is the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?
- A. Clubbing of the digits
- B. Upper extremity hypertension
- C. Pedal edema and portal congestion
- D. Loud systolic ejection murmur
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Upper extremity hypertension. Coarctation of the aorta leads to increased blood pressure in the upper extremities. The pressure in the arms is typically 20 mm Hg higher than in the legs. Choice A, clubbing of the digits, is not a common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choice C, pedal edema, and portal congestion are more suggestive of conditions like heart failure rather than coarctation of the aorta. Choice D, loud systolic ejection murmur, can be heard in conditions like aortic stenosis, but it is not the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta.
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A male client with heart failure calls the clinic and reports that he cannot put his shoes on because they are too tight. Which additional information should the nurse obtain?
- A. What time he took his medication?
- B. Has his weight changed in the last several days?
- C. Is he still able to tighten his belt buckle?
- D. How many hours he slept last night?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Has his weight changed in the last several days?' Sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention, which is a common symptom of worsening heart failure. The inability to put on tight shoes can be due to fluid retention leading to swelling in the feet and ankles. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the potential fluid retention issue and are less relevant in this scenario.
The nurse empties the nasogastric suction collection canister of a client who had a bowel resection the previous day and notes that 1,000 mL of gastric secretions were collected in the last 4 hours. The nurse should assess the client for symptoms of which related problem?
- A. Respiratory acidosis.
- B. Metabolic alkalosis.
- C. Hypoglycemia.
- D. Hyperkalemia.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic alkalosis. Loss of gastric secretions can lead to metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of hydrochloric acid. This can result in an increase in blood pH levels. Respiratory acidosis (choice A) is caused by retention of carbon dioxide, not related to the loss of gastric secretions. Hypoglycemia (choice C) is a low blood sugar level and is not directly related to the loss of gastric secretions. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is an elevated potassium level in the blood and is not typically associated with the loss of gastric secretions.
Based on this strip, what is the correct interpretation of this rhythm?
- A. Atrial fibrillation.
- B. Premature atrial fibrillation.
- C. AV block.
- D. Ventricular tachycardia.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct interpretation of the rhythm strip is atrial fibrillation. This arrhythmia is characterized by an irregular heartbeat and the absence of distinct P waves. Choice B, premature atrial fibrillation, is incorrect as there is no indication of premature beats in the strip. Choice C, AV block, is also incorrect as there is no evidence of conduction delays between the atria and ventricles. Choice D, ventricular tachycardia, is not supported by the absence of wide QRS complexes typically seen in this arrhythmia.
When is the best time to administer pancreatic enzyme replacement?
- A. Before meals and snacks
- B. Before bedtime
- C. Early in the morning
- D. After meals and snacks
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer pancreatic enzyme replacement before meals and snacks. This timing is crucial as it allows the enzymes to assist in the digestion of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins that are consumed during the meals. Administering the replacement after meals and snacks would not be effective as the enzymes need to be present in the digestive system when food is consumed. Options B and C are incorrect as they do not align with the optimal timing for pancreatic enzyme replacement administration.
The nurse is preparing a client for surgery who was admitted to the emergency center following a motor vehicle collision. The client has an open fracture of the femur and is bleeding moderately from the bone protrusion site.
- A. Ensure the client is NPO and document the last meal.
- B. Administer pain medication as prescribed.
- C. Apply a sterile dressing to the wound site.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's medication history.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action is to notify the healthcare provider of the client's medication history. This is important because understanding the client's medication history, especially if they are taking anticoagulants or other medications that could affect bleeding and surgery, is crucial in ensuring safe management of the client's condition. Option A, ensuring the client is NPO and documenting the last meal, is important but not the priority in this situation. Administering pain medication (Option B) should only be done after ensuring the client's safety and stability. Applying a sterile dressing (Option C) is also important but not as critical as informing the healthcare provider of the medication history.