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What is the most effective nursing intervention to prevent atelectasis from developing in a postoperative client?
- A. Maintain adequate hydration
- B. Assist the client to turn, deep breathe, and cough
- C. Ambulate the client within 12 hours
- D. Splint the incision
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assist the client to turn, deep breathe, and cough. This intervention helps to expand the lungs and prevent atelectasis in postoperative clients. Maintaining adequate hydration is important for overall health but is not the most effective intervention for preventing atelectasis. Ambulating the client within 12 hours is beneficial for preventing complications after surgery, but it may not be as directly effective in preventing atelectasis as turning, deep breathing, and coughing. Splinting the incision is important for postoperative care, but it does not specifically address the prevention of atelectasis.
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Which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the public health department within the next 24 hours?
- A. An infant with a positive stool culture for Shigella
- B. An elderly factory worker with a positive lab report for acid-fast bacillus smear
- C. A young adult commercial pilot with a positive histopathological examination for Pneumocystis carinii from an induced sputum
- D. A middle-aged nurse with a history of varicella-zoster virus and crops of vesicles on an erythematous base appearing on the skin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a positive acid-fast bacillus smear in an elderly factory worker suggests tuberculosis, a serious communicable disease that must be reported promptly to the public health department to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as Shigella is an important pathogen, but it does not require immediate public health reporting. Choice C is incorrect because Pneumocystis carinii is an opportunistic pathogen and does not require urgent public health reporting. Choice D is incorrect as varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles, both of which are not reportable diseases to the public health department.
The nurse receives an order to give a client iron by deep injection. The nurse knows that the reason for this route is to
- A. enhance absorption of the medication
- B. ensure that the entire dose of medication is given
- C. provide more even distribution of the drug
- D. prevent the drug from tissue irritation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Deep injection helps to prevent tissue irritation caused by iron, which can be damaging to tissues. Option A is incorrect because deep injection does not primarily aim to enhance absorption, but rather to prevent tissue irritation. Option B is incorrect as the route of administration does not determine whether the entire dose is given. Option C is incorrect because the even distribution of the drug is not the main purpose of deep injection in this context.
The nurse is about to assess a 6-month-old child with nonorganic failure-to-thrive (NOFTT). Upon entering the room, the nurse would expect the baby to be
- A. Irritable and 'colicky' with no attempts to pull to standing
- B. Alert, laughing, and playing with a rattle, sitting with support
- C. Skin color dusky with poor skin turgor over the abdomen
- D. Pale, thin arms and legs, uninterested in surroundings
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A baby with nonorganic failure-to-thrive often appears pale, thin, and uninterested in their surroundings. Choice A is incorrect as 'irritable and colicky with no attempts to pull to standing' is more indicative of other conditions like colic. Choice B is incorrect as a baby with nonorganic failure-to-thrive is unlikely to be alert, laughing, and playing, as they would typically present with signs of failure to thrive. Choice C is incorrect as dusky skin color and poor skin turgor are not typical findings in a baby with nonorganic failure-to-thrive.
Which bed position is preferred for use with a client in an extended care facility on a falls risk prevention protocol?
- A. All 4 side rails up, wheels locked, bed closest to door
- B. Lower side rails up, bed facing the doorway
- C. Knees bent, head slightly elevated, bed in the lowest position
- D. Bed in the lowest position, wheels locked, place bed against the wall
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Placing the bed in the lowest position, ensuring wheels are locked, and positioning it against the wall is the preferred bed position for a client in an extended care facility on a falls risk prevention protocol. This setup helps minimize the risk of falls by providing a stable and secure environment. Choices A, B, and C do not address key factors such as having the bed in the lowest position and placing it against the wall, which are crucial in preventing falls in such a setting.
The client is preparing for a myelogram. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a contraindication for this test?
- A. I can't lie in one position for more than thirty minutes.
- B. I am allergic to shrimp.
- C. I suffer from claustrophobia.
- D. I developed a severe headache after a spinal tap.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An allergy to shrimp is a contraindication for a myelogram because the contrast dye used in the procedure contains iodine, which can trigger allergic reactions in individuals allergic to shellfish. Choices A, C, and D are not contraindications for a myelogram. Inability to lie still for an extended period, claustrophobia, or a previous headache after a spinal tap are concerns that can be managed during the procedure but do not necessarily prevent the test from being performed.