Nokea
What is the most effective treatment for cystic fibrosis?
- A. Heart-lung transplant
- B. Administration of prophylactic antibiotics
- C. Administration of nebulized bronchodilators
- D. Vigorous and consistent chest physiotherapy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most effective treatment for cystic fibrosis is vigorous and consistent chest physiotherapy, as it helps in clearing the mucus and improving lung function.
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The most common preventive drug therapy for tuberculosis is:
- A. Prednisone.
- B. Isoniazid.
- C. Gamma globulin.
- D. Aminophylline.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Isoniazid. Isoniazid is the most common preventive drug therapy for tuberculosis due to its effectiveness in treating latent TB infections. It works by killing the bacteria that cause TB. Prednisone is a steroid and not used as a preventive therapy for TB. Gamma globulin is used for immune deficiency disorders, not TB prevention. Aminophylline is a bronchodilator used for asthma, not TB prevention. In summary, isoniazid is the preferred choice for TB prevention due to its specific antimycobacterial action, while the other options are unrelated or ineffective for this purpose.
The organs of the respiratory zone of the respiratory system include all the following EXCEPT:
- A. trachea
- B. small bronchioles
- C. alveoli ducts
- D. alveoli
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: trachea. The trachea is not part of the respiratory zone, which is where gas exchange occurs. The respiratory zone includes the small bronchioles, alveoli ducts, and alveoli. The trachea is part of the conducting zone, which is responsible for transporting air to and from the respiratory zone. Therefore, the trachea is not directly involved in gas exchange, making it the correct answer. The other choices, B: small bronchioles, C: alveoli ducts, and D: alveoli, are all part of the respiratory zone and play a crucial role in gas exchange.
While assessing an acutely ill patient's respiratory rate, the nurse assesses four normal breaths followed by an episode of apnea lasting 20 seconds. How should the nurse document this finding?
- A. Eupnea
- B. Apnea
- C. Biot's respiration
- D. Cheyne-Stokes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Biot's respiration. Biot's respiration is characterized by regular breathing interrupted by periods of apnea. In this scenario, the nurse observed normal breaths followed by a 20-second episode of apnea, which aligns with Biot's respiration. It is crucial to document this finding accurately to ensure appropriate care.
Incorrect answers:
A: Eupnea refers to normal breathing without any interruptions or irregularities. The presence of apnea in the scenario rules out eupnea.
B: Apnea would be an incomplete assessment as it does not capture the alternating pattern of normal breaths and apnea observed in Biot's respiration.
D: Cheyne-Stokes breathing involves a cyclical pattern of gradually increasing and decreasing breathing rates, which is not evident in the scenario described.
Double Bohr effect (Oxygen curves for maternal and foetal Hb move apart in opposite directions) occurs in
- A. Foetal circulation
- B. Maternal circulation
- C. In the Placenta operating in both maternal and foetal circulations
- D. In the uterine wall
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. In the placenta, maternal and fetal blood circulations are in close proximity.
2. Maternal Hb releases oxygen to fetal Hb due to the lower affinity of fetal Hb for oxygen.
3. This double Bohr effect causes the oxygen dissociation curves of maternal and fetal Hb to move apart.
4. This occurs specifically in the placenta where both maternal and fetal circulations operate.
Summary:
A. Incorrect. Double Bohr effect doesn't occur solely in fetal circulation.
B. Incorrect. Double Bohr effect doesn't occur solely in maternal circulation.
C. Correct. Placenta facilitates the exchange between maternal and fetal blood causing the double Bohr effect.
D. Incorrect. Double Bohr effect is not related to the uterine wall.
Which assessment findings aren't consistent with a client diagnosis of right-sided heart failure?
- A. Collapsed neck veins
- B. Distended abdomen
- C. Dependent edema
- D. Decreased appetite
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because collapsed neck veins are not consistent with right-sided heart failure. In right-sided heart failure, venous congestion leads to jugular venous distention, not collapse. Distended abdomen (choice B) occurs due to fluid accumulation in the abdomen, a common finding in right-sided heart failure. Dependent edema (choice C) results from fluid retention in the lower extremities, also seen in right-sided heart failure. Decreased appetite (choice D) can be present due to abdominal discomfort from fluid accumulation. Therefore, the presence of collapsed neck veins is the only assessment finding that is not indicative of right-sided heart failure.