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What is the most important assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct before the administration of epidural anesthesia to a client at 40 weeks' gestation?
- A. Maternal blood pressure.
- B. Level of pain sensation.
- C. Station of presenting part.
- D. Variability of fetal heart rate.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Assessing maternal blood pressure is crucial before administering epidural anesthesia because it can cause hypotension, affecting both the mother and the fetus. Hypotension can lead to decreased placental perfusion, potentially compromising the fetal oxygen supply. Monitoring and maintaining maternal blood pressure within a safe range are essential to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the fetus during the administration of epidural anesthesia.
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The client is admitted in active labor with a cervix that is 3 cm dilated, 50% effaced, and the presenting part at 0 station. An hour later, the client expresses the need to go to the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Palpate the client's bladder.
- B. Check the pH of the vaginal fluid.
- C. Review the fetal heart rate pattern.
- D. Determine cervical dilation.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should prioritize determining cervical dilation as it helps in assessing the progress of labor and ensures it is safe for the client to move. Changes in cervical dilation may indicate the advancement of labor, warranting appropriate interventions or restrictions on movement to prevent complications.
The nurse is caring for a one-year-old child following surgical correction of hypospadias. Which nursing action has the highest priority?
- A. Monitor urinary output
- B. Auscultate bowel sounds
- C. Observe appearance of stool
- D. Record percent of diet consumed
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A loading dose of terbutaline (Brethine) 250 mcg IV is prescribed for a client in preterm labor. Brethine 20 mg is added to 1,000 mL of D5W. How many milliliters of the solution should the nurse administer?
- A. 45
- B. 15 mL
- C. 4
- D. 13
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: To calculate the amount of terbutaline to administer, first convert the dose to the same unit. 250 mcg = 0.25 mg. Next, set up a proportion: 20 mg is to 1000 mL as 0.25 mg is to X mL. Cross multiply and solve for X: 20 X = 0.25 1000. X = (0.25 1000) / 20 = 12.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 13 mL of the solution.
A new mother calls the nurse stating that she wants to start feeding her 6-month-old child something besides breast milk, but is concerned that the infant is too young to start eating solid foods. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Advise the mother to wait at least another month before starting any solid foods.
- B. Instruct the mother to offer a few spoons of 2 or 3 pureed fruits at each meal.
- C. Reassure the mother that the infant is old enough to eat iron-fortified cereal.
- D. Encourage the mother to schedule a developmental assessment of the infant.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: At 6 months, infants are generally ready to start eating iron-fortified cereals as their iron stores begin to deplete. Introducing iron-fortified cereals at this age helps meet the infant's nutritional needs, particularly for iron, which becomes deficient as the infant's iron reserves diminish. It is a safe and appropriate first food to introduce to infants around 6 months of age, along with continued breastfeeding or formula feeding.
A client at 32-weeks gestation comes to the prenatal clinic with complaints of pedal edema, dyspnea, fatigue, and a moist cough. Which question is most important for the LPN/LVN to ask this client?
- A. Which symptom did you experience first?
- B. Are you eating large amounts of salty foods?
- C. Have you visited a foreign country recently?
- D. Do you have a history of rheumatic fever?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.