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What is the primary action of a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA) prescribed to a patient with an acute asthma exacerbation?
- A. Reduce inflammation
- B. Relieve bronchospasm
- C. Thin respiratory secretions
- D. Suppress cough
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieve bronchospasm. Short-acting beta2-agonists (SABAs) like albuterol act by stimulating beta2 receptors in the airway smooth muscle, leading to bronchodilation and relieving bronchospasm. This helps to quickly open up the airways during an acute asthma exacerbation. Choice A is incorrect because SABAs do not directly reduce inflammation. Choice C is incorrect as SABAs do not affect respiratory secretions. Choice D is incorrect as SABAs do not suppress cough but rather target bronchospasm.
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A patient with asthma is prescribed a corticosteroid inhaler. What is the most important instruction to give to the patient?
- A. Use the inhaler only during asthma attacks.
- B. Rinse the mouth after using the inhaler.
- C. Take a double dose if symptoms worsen.
- D. Avoid using a spacer with the inhaler.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rinse the mouth after using the inhaler. This instruction is crucial because corticosteroid inhalers can lead to oral thrush, a fungal infection in the mouth. Rinsing the mouth helps prevent this side effect.
A: Using the inhaler only during asthma attacks is incorrect as corticosteroid inhalers are typically used regularly to manage asthma symptoms.
C: Taking a double dose if symptoms worsen is dangerous and can lead to overdose. Patients should follow the prescribed dosage.
D: Avoiding using a spacer with the inhaler is not a universal instruction. Spacers can actually improve the effectiveness of the medication delivery.
A patient who is diagnosed with cervical cancer that is classified as Tis, N0, M0 asks the nurse what the letters and numbers mean. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. The cancer involves only the cervix.
- B. The cancer cells closely resemble normal cells.
- C. Further testing is necessary to determine the spread of the cancer.
- D. Determining the original site of the cervical cancer is challenging.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer A is correct:
1. Tis refers to carcinoma in situ, meaning the cancer is limited to the surface layer of cells in the cervix.
2. N0 indicates no regional lymph node involvement.
3. M0 indicates no distant metastasis.
4. Therefore, the cancer is localized only to the cervix, making answer A correct.
Summary:
B: Incorrect - Does not address the staging information provided in Tis, N0, M0.
C: Incorrect - The staging information is already provided, and further testing may not be necessary at this stage.
D: Incorrect - Staging information does not indicate difficulty in determining the original site of the cancer.
A patient with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa. What dietary modification should the nurse suggest to the patient?
- A. Increase intake of vitamin C.
- B. Limit foods high in protein.
- C. Avoid foods rich in fiber.
- D. Increase sodium intake.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit foods high in protein. Levodopa competes with amino acids for absorption in the small intestine, so consuming high-protein foods can reduce its effectiveness. Limiting protein intake can help maximize the absorption and efficacy of levodopa. Increasing vitamin C (option A) is not directly related to levodopa metabolism. Avoiding fiber (option C) is not necessary for levodopa therapy. Increasing sodium intake (option D) is not indicated for levodopa treatment in Parkinson's disease.
In a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, what laboratory result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this therapy?
- A. Serum creatinine
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Hemoglobin level
- D. Serum potassium
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is C, hemoglobin level. Erythropoietin therapy is used to stimulate red blood cell production in CKD patients with anemia. Monitoring hemoglobin levels helps assess the effectiveness of the therapy in improving anemia. If hemoglobin levels increase, it indicates the therapy is working.
Summary of incorrect choices:
A: Serum creatinine - This measures kidney function, not the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy for anemia in CKD patients.
B: White blood cell count - Monitors immune function, not related to erythropoietin therapy for anemia.
D: Serum potassium - Important for monitoring electrolyte balance in CKD patients but not specific to assessing erythropoietin therapy effectiveness.
Which problem in a client requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Finger paresthesias related to carpal tunnel syndrome.
- B. Increasing sharp pain related to compartment syndrome.
- C. Increasing burning pain related to a Morton's neuroma.
- D. Increasing sharp pain related to plantar fasciitis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Compartment syndrome is a medical emergency that can lead to tissue damage and loss of limb function. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent further complications. Finger paresthesias related to carpal tunnel syndrome (A) are not life-threatening and can be managed conservatively. Morton's neuroma (C) and plantar fasciitis (D) are painful conditions, but they do not pose an immediate threat to the client's health or limb function.