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What is the primary cause of jaundice in a client with liver cirrhosis?
- A. Decreased bile production
- B. Increased bilirubin levels
- C. Hepatic inflammation
- D. Portal hypertension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary cause of jaundice in a client with liver cirrhosis is increased bilirubin levels. Liver cirrhosis impairs the liver's ability to process bilirubin, leading to its accumulation in the bloodstream. This excess bilirubin then causes the yellow discoloration of the skin and eyes characteristic of jaundice.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Decreased bile production is not the primary cause of jaundice in liver cirrhosis. While decreased bile flow may contribute to jaundice, it is secondary to the impaired bilirubin processing.
C: Hepatic inflammation is a common feature of liver cirrhosis but is not the direct cause of jaundice in this context.
D: Portal hypertension is a complication of liver cirrhosis but is not the primary cause of jaundice.
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A patient with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?
- A. Take an extra dose if you miss one.
- B. Avoid high-potassium foods.
- C. Report any visual disturbances.
- D. Stop taking the medication if your pulse is normal.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Report any visual disturbances. This is important because digoxin can cause visual disturbances, such as blurred or yellow-tinted vision, which may indicate toxicity. By reporting these symptoms promptly, the nurse can prevent serious complications.
A: Taking an extra dose if a dose is missed can lead to overdose and toxicity.
B: Avoiding high-potassium foods is important for patients taking potassium-sparing diuretics, not digoxin.
D: Stopping the medication if the pulse is normal is incorrect as it should be taken as prescribed for heart failure management.
Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should receive which instruction regarding warfarin therapy?
- A. Continue taking warfarin until the day of surgery.
- B. Stop taking warfarin three days before surgery.
- C. Switch to aspirin before surgery.
- D. Stop taking warfarin one week before surgery.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because stopping warfarin one week before surgery reduces the risk of excessive bleeding during the procedure. Warfarin's anticoagulant effect can persist for several days, so stopping it earlier allows time for its effects to diminish. Choice A is incorrect because continuing warfarin until the day of surgery increases bleeding risk. Choice B is incorrect as stopping warfarin only three days before surgery may not provide enough time for the anticoagulant effect to wear off. Choice C is incorrect as aspirin is not a suitable substitute for warfarin in most cases.
A patient with asthma is prescribed a corticosteroid inhaler. What is the most important instruction to give to the patient?
- A. Use the inhaler only during asthma attacks.
- B. Rinse the mouth after using the inhaler.
- C. Take a double dose if symptoms worsen.
- D. Avoid using a spacer with the inhaler.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rinse the mouth after using the inhaler. This instruction is crucial because corticosteroid inhalers can lead to oral thrush, a fungal infection in the mouth. Rinsing the mouth helps prevent this side effect.
A: Using the inhaler only during asthma attacks is incorrect as corticosteroid inhalers are typically used regularly to manage asthma symptoms.
C: Taking a double dose if symptoms worsen is dangerous and can lead to overdose. Patients should follow the prescribed dosage.
D: Avoiding using a spacer with the inhaler is not a universal instruction. Spacers can actually improve the effectiveness of the medication delivery.
A patient who is receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer develops thrombocytopenia. What should the nurse include in the care plan?
- A. Encourage light exercise.
- B. Avoid intramuscular injections.
- C. Do not administer aspirin.
- D. Use a soft toothbrush for oral care.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Avoid intramuscular injections. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by low platelet count, which can lead to impaired blood clotting. Intramuscular injections can cause bleeding and bruising due to the decreased ability of blood to clot. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid invasive procedures like intramuscular injections to prevent excessive bleeding in patients with thrombocytopenia. Encouraging light exercise (choice A) can be beneficial for overall health but may not directly address the risk of bleeding. Avoiding aspirin (choice C) is important as it can further increase the risk of bleeding. Using a soft toothbrush for oral care (choice D) is a good practice, but it does not directly address the risk associated with intramuscular injections in patients with thrombocytopenia.
A patient with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- C. Bleeding time
- D. Platelet count
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). PTT is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy because heparin primarily affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, which is reflected in the PTT results. Monitoring PTT helps to ensure that the patient's blood is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation.
A: Prothrombin time (PT) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, which affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade.
C: Bleeding time is not typically used to monitor heparin therapy effectiveness.
D: Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not directly reflect the effectiveness of heparin therapy in preventing or treating DVT.