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What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?
- A. Teaching stress-reduction techniques
- B. Early detection of mental illness
- C. Leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder
- D. Rehabilitation and prevention of further issues
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.
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A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propranolol. Which finding indicates that the propranolol is effective?
- A. The client reports an increase in weight
- B. The client has a decrease in blood pressure
- C. The client reports an increase in energy
- D. The client's respiratory rate has increased
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a decrease in blood pressure is an expected outcome when propranolol, a beta-blocker, is effectively managing hyperthyroidism. Propranolol helps control symptoms such as tachycardia and hypertension associated with hyperthyroidism. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, increased energy, and an increased respiratory rate are not direct indicators of propranolol's effectiveness in treating hyperthyroidism.
A client in her first trimester of pregnancy is being taught by a nurse about over-the-counter medications that belong to pregnancy risk category B. Which of the following medications should the nurse include?
- A. Naproxen
- B. Aspirin
- C. Ibuprofen
- D. Acetaminophen
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acetaminophen is the correct choice as it belongs to pregnancy risk category B, making it considered safe during pregnancy. Naproxen, Aspirin, and Ibuprofen are not recommended during pregnancy, especially in the first trimester, as they are classified in higher-risk categories which may be harmful to the developing fetus.
What are the key nursing interventions for a patient experiencing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
- A. Positioning the patient in a prone position
- B. Monitoring vital signs and lung sounds
- C. Preparing for mechanical ventilation
- D. Administering supplemental oxygen
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Positioning the patient in a prone position. Prone positioning is a key nursing intervention for patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) as it helps improve oxygenation by allowing better lung ventilation. Choice B, monitoring vital signs and lung sounds, is important but not a key intervention specific to ARDS. Choice C, preparing for mechanical ventilation, may be necessary in severe cases of ARDS but is not a primary nursing intervention. Choice D, administering supplemental oxygen, is a common supportive measure but is not specific to ARDS interventions.
A client has bilateral eye patches following an injury. When the client's food tray arrives, which of the following interventions should the nurse take to promote independence in eating?
- A. Explain to the client that their tray is here and place their hands on it
- B. Ask the client if they would prefer a liquid diet
- C. Assign an assistive personnel to feed the client
- D. Describe to the client the location of the food on the tray
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Describing the location of food on the tray helps promote independence for the client with bilateral eye patches. By providing clear instructions on where the food is placed, the client can independently locate and consume their meal. Option A is incorrect as physically placing the client's hands on the tray does not encourage independence. Option B is unnecessary unless there are specific dietary restrictions indicated. Option C does not promote the client's independence and should be avoided unless absolutely necessary.
A community nurse is instructing a group of newly licensed nurses about diseases that require airborne precautions. Which of the following diseases should the nurse include?
- A. Rubella
- B. Pertussis
- C. Influenza
- D. Varicella
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Varicella. Varicella (chickenpox) is a disease that requires airborne precautions to prevent its spread. Airborne precautions are necessary to prevent transmission of pathogens that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air. Rubella, pertussis, and influenza do not require airborne precautions. Rubella and pertussis require droplet precautions, while influenza requires droplet and contact precautions. Therefore, Varicella is the only disease in the list that necessitates airborne precautions.