What is the primary goal of family education?
- A. symptom reduction
- B. improved quality of life
- C. increased knowledge about mental illness
- D. improved caregiving skills
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal of family education is to improve the quality of life. Family education aims to enhance the overall well-being and functioning of both the individual with the condition and their family members. While increased knowledge about mental illness may be a beneficial outcome, it is not the primary objective of family education. Symptom reduction is more commonly associated with psychoeducation rather than family education. Improving caregiving skills is a component of family education, but the primary focus is on improving the quality of life for everyone involved in the caregiving process.
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The client is taking rifampin 600mg po daily to treat his tuberculosis. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of the medication?
- A. Telling the client that the medication will need to be taken with juice
- B. Telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine
- C. Telling the client to take the medication before going to bed at night
- D. Telling the client to take the medication if night sweats occur
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine. Rifampin can change the color of the urine and body fluid. Teaching the client about these changes is important as the client might think this is a complication. Answer A is incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take rifampin with juice. Answer C is incorrect because rifampin should be taken at consistent times, not necessarily before going to bed. Answer D is incorrect as rifampin should be taken regularly as prescribed, not based on symptoms like night sweats.
A 5-year-old is admitted to the unit following a tonsillectomy. Which of the following would indicate a complication of the surgery?
- A. Decreased appetite
- B. A low-grade fever
- C. Chest congestion
- D. Constant swallowing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A complication of a tonsillectomy is bleeding, and constant swallowing may indicate bleeding. Decreased appetite is expected after a tonsillectomy, as is a low-grade fever; thus, answers A and B are incorrect. Chest congestion, as mentioned in answer C, is not typical of tonsillectomy complications, making it an incorrect choice.
Why might the physician order antibiotics to be given through the central venous access device (CVAD) rather than through a peripheral IV line if the CVAD becomes infected?
- A. To prevent infiltration of the peripheral line
- B. To reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein
- C. To lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic
- D. To attempt to eliminate microorganisms in the catheter and prevent having to remove it
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a patient's central venous access device (CVAD) becomes infected, administering antibiotics through the line is essential to attempt to eliminate microorganisms within the catheter. The goal is to prevent the necessity of removing the catheter, which might be required if the infection persists. Choice A, 'To prevent infiltration of the peripheral line,' is incorrect as the priority is addressing the catheter infection, not preventing issues with a peripheral line. Choice B, 'To reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein,' is not relevant to the rationale for choosing the CVAD for antibiotic administration. Choice C, 'To lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic,' is also incorrect as the main focus is managing the catheter-associated infection rather than allergy prevention.
The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?
- A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
- B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
- C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
- D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.
An elderly client is diagnosed with ovarian cancer. She has surgery followed by chemotherapy with fluorouracil (Adrucil) IV. What should the nurse do if she notices crystals and cloudiness in the IV medication?
- A. Discard the solution and order a new bag
- B. Warm the solution
- C. Continue the infusion and document the finding
- D. Discontinue the medication
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Crystals in the solution are not normal and should not be administered to the client. Discarding the solution and ordering a new bag is the correct action to ensure the client's safety. Warming the solution, as suggested in answer B, will not resolve the issue of crystals and cloudiness, which could potentially harm the client. Continuing the infusion, as in answer C, could pose a risk to the client due to the presence of abnormal substances. Answer D, discontinuing the medication, would typically require a doctor's order and should be done after discarding the contaminated solution.
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