Nokea
What is the primary nursing concern for a mother receiving magnesium sulfate therapy?
- A. Monitor blood pressure every 4 hours
- B. Monitor deep tendon reflexes hourly
- C. Assess respiratory rate and effort
- D. Prepare for delivery if signs of toxicity appear
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring reflexes detects early signs of magnesium toxicity.
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A nurse on an antepartum unit is reviewing the medical records for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 5.8%
- B. A client who has preeclampsia and a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/ dL
- C. A client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and a sodium level of 110 mEq/L
- D. A client who has placenta previa and a hematocrit of 36%
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A client with hyperemesis gravidarum and a sodium level of 110 mEq/L is at risk for severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, particularly hyponatremia (low sodium level). Hyponatremia can lead to serious complications such as seizures, coma, and even death if not promptly addressed. Therefore, this client should be assessed first to prevent any potential life-threatening conditions. The nurse should prioritize interventions to address the electrolyte imbalance and dehydration in this client to ensure their safety and well-being.
The nurse is monitoring a pregnant client with severe preeclampsia. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg.
- B. Urine output of 30 mL/hr.
- C. Complaints of headache and blurred vision.
- D. Weight gain of 1 pound in one week.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Headache and blurred vision are signs of worsening preeclampsia, indicating potential eclampsia.
A patient has just been prescribed birth control pills and asks about possible side effects. Which of the following should be discussed with the patient?
- A. Increase in menstrual flow
- B. Headaches or nausea
- C. Decrease in libido
- D. Increased risk of breast cancer
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Headaches and nausea are common side effects of oral contraceptives. Choice A is incorrect because birth control pills typically decrease the menstrual flow. Choice C is not commonly reported with oral contraceptives, and many women report no change in libido. Choice D is incorrect because while oral contraceptives may slightly increase the risk of certain cancers, breast cancer risk is not significantly elevated compared to the general population.
A pregnant client tells the clinic nurse she wants to know the sex of her baby as soon as it can be determined. What factor allows this at 12 weeks' gestation?
- A. The appearance of the fetal external genitalia
- B. The beginning of differentiation in the fetal groin
- C. The fetal testes are descended into the scrotal sac
- D. The internal differences in males and females become apparent
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: By 12 weeks, the external genitalia are sufficiently developed for visual determination of the baby's sex.
The nurse in a clinic is teaching a client of childbearing age about recommended folic acid supplements. Which of the following defects can occur in the fetus or neonate as a result folic acid deficiency?
- A. iron deficiency anemia
- B. Poor bone formation
- C. Macrosomia fetus
- D. Neural tube defect
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Folic acid is essential for the development of the neural tube in the fetus. When a pregnant woman has a deficiency in folic acid, it can lead to neural tube defects in the fetus. Neural tube defects are serious birth defects that affect the brain, spine, or spinal cord of the baby. The most common types of neural tube defects include spina bifida and anencephaly. Therefore, it is crucial for women of childbearing age to ensure an adequate intake of folic acid to prevent such birth defects.