Nokea
What is the primary purpose of performing a semen analysis during infertility testing?
- A. To determine the presence of infections.
- B. To evaluate sperm count, motility, and morphology.
- C. To check for hormonal imbalances.
- D. To test for genetic abnormalities in sperm.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of performing a semen analysis during infertility testing is to evaluate sperm count, motility, and morphology. This is crucial in assessing male fertility potential. Sperm count indicates the quantity of sperm, motility refers to their ability to move effectively, and morphology assesses the shape and structure of sperm. These factors directly impact the likelihood of successful fertilization. Checking for infections (choice A) is important but not the primary purpose. Hormonal imbalances (choice C) are typically evaluated through blood tests, not semen analysis. Testing for genetic abnormalities in sperm (choice D) is a separate test and not the primary focus of a semen analysis.
You may also like to solve these questions
Lori, who is 32 years old, is taking clomiphene citrate to induce ovulation and presents to the office for a vaginal ultrasound. She mentions experiencing abdominal bloating, nausea, and weight gain of 5 pounds over the past 12 hours. What condition do these symptoms indicate?
- A. Ovulation
- B. Premenstrual syndrome
- C. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
- D. Failed ovulation induction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS). OHSS is a potential complication of ovulation induction with medications like clomiphene citrate. The symptoms of abdominal bloating, nausea, and rapid weight gain indicate fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity, a hallmark of OHSS. This occurs due to enlarged ovaries releasing excessive fluid into the abdomen. It is important to monitor patients like Lori closely for signs of OHSS to prevent severe complications.
Incorrect choices:
A: Ovulation - Symptoms described are not typical of normal ovulation.
B: Premenstrual syndrome - Symptoms are not consistent with typical PMS symptoms.
D: Failed ovulation induction - Symptoms of weight gain and bloating are not indicative of failed ovulation induction but rather a complication of the treatment.
Assessment of a pregnant woman reveals that the presenting part of the fetus is at the level of the maternal ischial spines. The nurse documents this as which station?
- A. -2
- B. -1
- D. 1
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Zero (0) station is designated when the presenting part is at the level of the maternal ischial spines. Minus stations are used when the presenting part is above the ischial spines, and plus stations are used when the presenting part is below the ischial spines.
What advice should the nurse give a patient with irregular periods trying to conceive?
- A. Track ovulation using basal body temperature and ovulation kits.
- B. Increase carbohydrate intake to regulate cycles.
- C. Avoid exercise to prevent further irregularity.
- D. Undergo hormone therapy immediately.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because tracking ovulation using basal body temperature and ovulation kits helps identify the most fertile days for conception. This method allows the patient to time intercourse effectively. Increasing carbohydrate intake (B) does not address the root cause of irregular periods. Avoiding exercise (C) is not recommended as moderate exercise can actually help regulate menstrual cycles. Undergoing hormone therapy immediately (D) is an aggressive approach and should only be considered after other options have been explored.
A patient undergoing IVF asks about the risks of transferring multiple embryos. What should the nurse discuss?
- A. Increased chances of multiple pregnancies, which can pose risks to both mother and babies.
- B. Reduced implantation rates due to overcrowding in the uterus.
- C. Improved success rates with no associated risks.
- D. Increased likelihood of genetic abnormalities.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because transferring multiple embryos during IVF increases the likelihood of multiple pregnancies, which can lead to complications for both the mother and babies, such as preterm birth and low birth weight. This is a well-documented risk in IVF procedures.
Choice B is incorrect because overcrowding in the uterus does not reduce implantation rates; rather, it can increase the chances of successful implantation of the embryos.
Choice C is incorrect as transferring multiple embryos does not guarantee improved success rates and can actually increase the risks associated with multiple pregnancies.
Choice D is incorrect because while there is a slightly increased risk of genetic abnormalities in pregnancies resulting from IVF, the primary concern related to transferring multiple embryos is the increased risk of multiple pregnancies.
What is the role of ovarian reserve testing in infertility evaluation?
- A. To determine the number and quality of remaining eggs.
- B. To assess uterine abnormalities.
- C. To monitor hormone levels during pregnancy.
- D. To predict the success of natural conception within a month.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because ovarian reserve testing evaluates the quantity and quality of a woman's remaining eggs, helping to determine her fertility potential. This includes tests like AMH levels, antral follicle count, and FSH levels. Choice B is incorrect as it pertains to assessing uterine abnormalities, not ovarian reserve. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to monitoring hormone levels during pregnancy, not fertility evaluation. Choice D is incorrect as ovarian reserve testing does not predict success of natural conception within a specific timeframe.