What is the purpose of endometrial biopsy in fertility evaluations?
- A. To determine ovarian reserve and egg quality.
- B. To assess the receptivity of the uterine lining for implantation.
- C. To measure hormone levels in the bloodstream.
- D. To monitor embryo development after IVF.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To assess the receptivity of the uterine lining for implantation. Endometrial biopsy is performed to evaluate the quality of the uterine lining and its ability to support embryo implantation. By examining the endometrial tissue, doctors can assess factors such as thickness, pattern, and receptivity, crucial for successful implantation and pregnancy.
Incorrect choices:
A: To determine ovarian reserve and egg quality - Endometrial biopsy does not provide information on ovarian reserve or egg quality.
C: To measure hormone levels in the bloodstream - Endometrial biopsy does not measure hormone levels in the bloodstream; instead, it focuses on the uterine lining.
D: To monitor embryo development after IVF - Endometrial biopsy is not used to monitor embryo development; it is primarily for assessing uterine receptivity.
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A 25-year-old woman, G0 P0000, enters the infertility clinic stating that she has just learned she is positive for the BRCA1 and the BRCA2 genes. She asks the nurse what her options are for getting pregnant and breastfeeding her baby. The nurse should base her reply on which of the following?
- A. Fertility of women who carry the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes is similar to that of unaffected women.
- B. Women with these genes should be advised not to have children because the children could inherit the defective genes.
- C. Women with these genes should have their ovaries removed as soon as possible to prevent ovarian cancer.
- D. Lactation is contraindicated for women who carry the BRCA1 and BRCA 2 genes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: BRCA1/2 status does not directly affect fertility or breastfeeding.
A 25-year-old female tells the nurse, 'I have always planned on having children, but now I have been diagnosed with leukemia. I will start chemotherapy treatments soon.' The nurse should discuss which fertility preservation options with this patient?
- A. Donor oocytes
- B. Gestational carrier
- C. Ovulation induction with oocyte retrieval
- D. Cryopreservation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cryopreservation. This option allows the patient to preserve her fertility by freezing her eggs before starting chemotherapy, which may affect her ovarian function. Cryopreservation is the most suitable choice in this scenario as it provides the patient with the opportunity to have biological children in the future. Donor oocytes (choice A) and gestational carrier (choice B) are not relevant options for this patient as she wants to use her own eggs. Ovulation induction with oocyte retrieval (choice C) may not be feasible due to the urgency of starting chemotherapy and the potential risks associated with ovarian stimulation.
A 36-year-old female patient presents to the reproductive medicine clinic for a follow-up appointment. Laboratory results indicate diminished ovarian reserve, and her partner's semen analysis is normal. Which infertility options may be appropriate for this client?
- A. Donor oocytes
- B. Ovulation induction with clomiphene citrate
- C. Follitropin injections to stimulate ovarian follicles
- D. In-vitro fertilization and embryo transfer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Donor oocytes. Diminished ovarian reserve implies reduced quantity and quality of eggs, making natural conception challenging. Donor oocytes offer a viable option for achieving pregnancy.
B: Ovulation induction with clomiphene citrate may not be effective if ovarian reserve is significantly diminished.
C: Follitropin injections stimulate the patient's own ovarian follicles, which may not be successful if ovarian reserve is low.
D: In-vitro fertilization and embryo transfer require viable eggs from the patient, which may be limited in cases of diminished ovarian reserve.
A woman who is undergoing infertility testing states, "My husband won't discuss this with me. I don't think he cares about or wants a baby." The nurse's ideal response is
- A. "You should confront him about this."
- B. "He probably doesn't understand your concern."
- C. "Men are sometimes less eager to have children."
- D. "It may be harder for him to express his feelings."
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it acknowledges the husband's potential difficulty in expressing his feelings, validating the woman's concerns while also offering empathy. It is important to recognize that discussing infertility can be emotionally challenging for both partners, and the response shows understanding and support.
Choice A is incorrect as it suggests confrontation, which may escalate the situation and lead to further communication breakdown. Choice B implies a lack of understanding on the husband's part, which may not be the case. Choice C is a generalization and may not address the specific dynamics of this couple's situation.
Lori, who is 32 years old, is taking clomiphene citrate to induce ovulation and presents to the office for a vaginal ultrasound. Lori mentions experiencing abdominal bloating, nausea, and weight gain of 5 pounds over the past 12 hours. What condition do these symptoms indicate?
- A. Ovulation
- B. Premenstrual syndrome
- C. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
- D. Failed ovulation induction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Lori is taking clomiphene citrate which can lead to ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS).
2. Symptoms like abdominal bloating, weight gain, and nausea are characteristic of OHSS.
3. OHSS typically occurs after ovulation induction medications like clomiphene citrate.
4. Therefore, Lori's symptoms indicate ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome.
Summary:
A. Ovulation is incorrect as the symptoms suggest a complication of ovulation induction, not ovulation itself.
B. Premenstrual syndrome does not explain the acute symptoms and weight gain.
D. Failed ovulation induction is incorrect as the symptoms are not indicative of failed ovulation but rather an adverse reaction to the medication.