Nokea
What is the purpose of intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) in IVF procedures?
- A. To allow multiple sperm to fertilize an egg for better results.
- B. To assist fertilization by injecting a single sperm directly into an egg.
- C. To ensure ovulation occurs during stimulation cycles.
- D. To bypass ovarian stimulation entirely.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, to assist fertilization by injecting a single sperm directly into an egg. In ICSI, a single sperm is carefully selected and injected into an egg to aid fertilization, particularly in cases of male infertility. This method ensures that fertilization occurs successfully by bypassing natural barriers. Choice A is incorrect as multiple sperm fertilizing an egg can lead to genetic abnormalities. Choice C is incorrect as ovulation is induced before egg retrieval, not during stimulation cycles. Choice D is incorrect as ovarian stimulation is necessary to produce multiple eggs for retrieval.
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Cindy, a 36-year-old, has been prescribed Follistim AQ, a follitropin. What information should the nurse include in Cindy's education?
- A. Eggs or oocytes develop within ovarian follicles. The purpose of the medication is to stimulate development of ovarian follicles.
- B. Follistim is a manufactured form of FSH, a hormone released from the pituitary gland during the menstrual cycle.
- C. Rapid weight gain is typical during ovulation induction.
- D. Typical side effects include breast tenderness, changes in mood, and depression.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Cindy is prescribed Follistim AQ to stimulate the development of ovarian follicles, where eggs or oocytes develop. This medication helps in ovulation induction. The nurse should educate Cindy on the medication's purpose, how it works, and the importance of follicle development in the ovulation process.
Choice B is incorrect as Follistim is not a manufactured form of FSH but a specific form of follitropin.
Choice C is incorrect as rapid weight gain is not a typical side effect of ovulation induction with Follistim.
Choice D is incorrect as the typical side effects of Follistim include ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome, abdominal pain, and bloating, not breast tenderness, changes in mood, or depression.
The nurse is providing genetic counseling for an expectant couple who just found out that their child has Down syndrome. Which is the best way for the nurse to handle this?
- A. Be supportive by answering questions and clarifying information and options.
- B. Inform the parents that they should not tell anyone until they have made a decision concerning termination of the pregnancy.
- C. Refer the couple to another specialist for a second opinion.
- D. Tell the couple that there are a lot of parents who have children with Down syndrome and they all do fine.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the nurse should be supportive, answer questions, and clarify information and options to help the couple make informed decisions. This approach shows empathy and respect for the couple's autonomy.
Choice B is incorrect as it is not the nurse's role to dictate when the parents should disclose the information. Choice C is not the best option as the nurse should continue to provide support rather than immediately referring the couple for a second opinion. Choice D is incorrect because generalizing outcomes for all parents of children with Down syndrome may not be helpful or accurate for this specific couple.
Based on the karyotype shown below, which of the following conclusions can the nurse make about the female baby?
- A. She has a genetically normal karyotype.
- B. She has trisomy 21.
- C. She has fragile X syndrome.
- D. She has an autosomal monosomy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) is indicated by three copies of chromosome 21.
A client's basal body temperature (BBT) chart for one full month is shown below. Based on the temperatures shown, what can the nurse conclude?
- A. It is likely that she has not ovulated.
- B. The client's fertile period is between 12 and 18 days.
- C. The client's period is abnormally long.
- D. It is likely that her progesterone levels rose on day 15.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A biphasic BBT pattern indicates ovulation, with rising temperatures reflecting progesterone elevation.
A woman who is taking clomiphene citrate (Clomid) phones the infertility clinic and says that she has some nausea each morning and frequency of urination. She suspects that she may be pregnant. The correct nursing response is to:
- A. Tell her that pregnancy cannot be determined until she misses her next period.
- B. Have her come to the clinic promptly for sensitive pregnancy testing.
- C. Explain that she should have a pregnancy test after she completes this drug cycle.
- D. Reassure her that her symptoms are commonly seen in women who take this drug.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct nursing response is to tell the woman that pregnancy cannot be determined until she misses her next period. Symptoms like nausea and frequency of urination can be side effects of clomiphene citrate (Clomid) and do not guarantee pregnancy.