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What is the recommended method of pain relief for a woman who has a perineal laceration after delivery?
- A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
- B. Acetaminophen
- C. Sitz baths
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, All of the above. After delivery, a woman with a perineal laceration may experience pain and inflammation. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can help reduce pain and inflammation. Acetaminophen can also provide pain relief without affecting inflammation. Sitz baths can help promote healing and reduce discomfort. Therefore, using all three methods together can provide comprehensive pain relief and aid in the healing process. Options A, B, and C alone may address specific aspects of pain relief but using all three together offers a more holistic approach to managing postpartum perineal pain.
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Which of the following is a potential complication of a cesarean delivery?
- A. Hemorrhage
- B. Infection
- C. Uterine rupture
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. A cesarean delivery can lead to hemorrhage due to the incision and removal of the placenta. Infection can occur at the incision site or in the uterus post-surgery. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication where the uterus tears open. Choosing D is correct as all these complications can potentially arise after a cesarean delivery. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not encompass all possible complications of a cesarean delivery.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following tubal ligation. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Premenstrual tension will no longer be present.
- B. My monthly menstrual period will be shorter.
- C. Hormone replacements will be needed following this procedure.
- D. Ovulation will remain the same.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ovulation will remain the same. This is correct because tubal ligation does not affect ovulation; it only prevents the released egg from traveling through the fallopian tube to the uterus. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Premenstrual tension can still occur. B: Menstrual period length is not affected by tubal ligation. C: Hormone replacements are not typically needed after tubal ligation unless there are other medical reasons.
What is the recommended method of administering vitamin K to a newborn who is not at risk for bleeding?
- A. Intramuscular injection
- B. Oral administration
- C. Topical application
- D. Subcutaneous injection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oral administration is the recommended method for administering vitamin K to a newborn who is not at risk for bleeding, as it is less invasive and effective.
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and is being tested for group B streptococcus ß-hemolytic (GBS). The client is multigravida and multipara with no history of GBS. She asks the nurse why the test was not conducted earlier in her pregnancy. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. You didn't report any symptoms of GBS during your pregnancy.'
- B. Your previous deliveries were all negative for GBS.'
- C. There was no indication of GBS in your earlier prenatal testing.'
- D. We need to know if you are positive for GBS at the time of delivery.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "We need to know if you are positive for GBS at the time of delivery." This response is appropriate because GBS status can change throughout pregnancy, and testing closer to delivery provides the most accurate information to guide treatment and prevent transmission to the newborn.
Choice A is incorrect as GBS is often asymptomatic and can be present without any noticeable symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because GBS status can change between pregnancies. Choice C is incorrect as GBS testing at 37 weeks is standard practice regardless of earlier prenatal testing results.
A nurse manager on the labor and delivery unit is teaching a group of newly licensed nurses about maternal cytomegalovirus. Which of the following information should the nurse manager include in the teaching?
- A. Mothers will receive prophylactic treatment with acyclovir prior to delivery.
- B. Transmission can occur via the saliva and urine of the newborn.
- C. Lesions are visible on the mother’s genitalia.
- D. This infection requires that airborne precautions be initiated for the newborn.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because cytomegalovirus can be transmitted through bodily fluids like saliva and urine. This is important for the nurses to understand as they care for newborns who may be infected. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Acyclovir is used for herpes simplex virus, not cytomegalovirus, C) Lesions are not typically visible with cytomegalovirus, D) Airborne precautions are not required for cytomegalovirus, and the other choices are not provided.