What is the role of angiogenesis in cancer progression?
- A. Promotes tumor shrinkage
- B. Prevents metastasis
- C. Supports tumor growth by forming new blood vessels
- D. Reduces oxygen supply to the tumor
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Angiogenesis supports tumor growth by forming new blood vessels to supply nutrients and oxygen.
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A nurse is teaching the client with systemic lupus erythematosus about prednisone. What information is the priority?
- A. Might make the client feel jittery or nervous.
- B. Can cause sodium and fluid retention.
- C. Long-term effects include fat redistribution.
- D. Never stop prednisone abruptly.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because abruptly stopping prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency due to suppression of the body's natural cortisol production. Adrenal insufficiency can be life-threatening. Priority is given to this information to ensure the client's safety. Choice A is incorrect as jitteriness or nervousness are common side effects but not the priority. Choice B is incorrect as sodium and fluid retention are potential side effects but not as critical as avoiding adrenal insufficiency. Choice C is incorrect as fat redistribution is a long-term effect but not as immediate as the risk of adrenal insufficiency.
During the healing phase of inflammation, which cells would be mostly likely to regenerate?
- A. Skin
- B. Neurons
- C. Cardiac muscle
- D. Skeletal muscle
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Skin cells are highly regenerative due to their rapid turnover rate and presence of stem cells. In contrast, neurons, cardiac muscle, and skeletal muscle have limited regenerative capacity.
Choose the best definition for effector T cells. They are cells that
- A. Have never seen their specific antigen
- B. Have just seen their specific antigen and start to proliferate
- C. Have been energized
- D. Have been activated, expanded and are able to kill or help other cells
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Effector T cells are fully activated, expanded, and capable of carrying out their functions, such as killing infected cells or assisting in immune responses. The correct choice (D) accurately describes the characteristics of effector T cells. They are not naïve cells (A), as they have encountered their specific antigen. They are not just starting to proliferate (B), as they have already undergone extensive proliferation. They have not only been energized (C), but have also completed the necessary steps for full activation and functionality.
In a client with AIDS,a CD4 cell count above ______ mm³ would indicate that antiretroviral therapy is being effective.
- A. 250
- B. 1000
- C. 500
- D. 275
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A CD4 count above 500 mm³ indicates a strong immune response and effective antiretroviral therapy.
Which of the following are not found in Cyanobacteria?
- A. thylakoids
- B. gas vesicles
- C. chloroplasts
- D. heterocysts
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: chloroplasts. Cyanobacteria do not have chloroplasts because they are prokaryotic organisms and do not possess membrane-bound organelles like chloroplasts found in eukaryotic cells. Instead, they perform photosynthesis using thylakoids, which are membrane-bound compartments where photosynthesis occurs. Gas vesicles are also present in cyanobacteria and help regulate their buoyancy. Heterocysts are specialized cells that aid in nitrogen fixation, a process that allows cyanobacteria to convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form that can be used by the organism. Therefore, the absence of chloroplasts in cyanobacteria makes choice C the correct answer.