Nokea
The nurse plans a teaching session with a client but postpones the planned session based on which nursing problem?
- A. Knowledge deficit regarding impending surgery.
- B. Ineffective management of treatment regimen.
- C. Activity intolerance related to postoperative pain.
- D. Noncompliance with prescribed exercise plan.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice C:
1. Activity intolerance is a priority nursing problem postoperatively due to pain.
2. Postoperative pain can limit the client's ability to perform activities.
3. Addressing activity intolerance is crucial for promoting recovery and preventing complications.
4. Delaying the teaching session helps the nurse focus on managing pain first.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
- Choice A: Knowledge deficit can be addressed after managing immediate postoperative issues.
- Choice B: Treatment regimen management is important but may not be as urgent as addressing activity intolerance related to pain.
- Choice D: Noncompliance with exercise plan can be addressed once the client's pain and activity intolerance are under control.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is caring for a patient in the final stages of dying. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
- A. Encourage the patient to eat to maintain strength.
- B. Provide emotional support and comfort measures.
- C. Perform frequent assessments to monitor for recovery signs.
- D. Implement aggressive interventions to prolong life.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide emotional support and comfort measures. In the final stages of dying, the focus shifts from curative treatment to providing comfort and dignity. Emotional support helps alleviate anxiety and fear, promoting a peaceful transition. Comfort measures like pain management improve quality of life. Encouraging the patient to eat may be futile as the body shuts down. Performing frequent assessments for recovery signs is not appropriate in this situation. Implementing aggressive interventions could go against the patient's wishes for a natural death.
When it is noted that a patient’s endotracheal tube is not se cured tightened, he respiratory care practitioner assists the nurse in taping the tube. After the tu be is retaped, the nurse auscultates the patient’s lungs and notes that the breath sounds over the left lung fields are absent. The nurse suspects is the cause of this finding?
- A. The endotracheal tube is in the right mainstem bronchus.
- B. The patient has a left pneumothorax.
- C. The patient has aspirated secretions during the proceduarbeir.b .com/test
- D. The stethoscope earpiece is clogged with wax.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The endotracheal tube is in the right mainstem bronchus. When the endotracheal tube is not secured properly and is retaped, there is a possibility that it may have migrated into the right mainstem bronchus, leading to absent breath sounds in the left lung fields. This condition is known as endobronchial intubation. In such cases, ventilation primarily occurs in the right lung, resulting in decreased or absent breath sounds on the contralateral side. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not explain the absence of breath sounds over the left lung fields in this specific scenario.
A patient who is orally intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation is anxious and is fighting the ventilator. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Verbally coach the patient to breathe with the ventilator.
- B. Sedate the patient with the ordered PRN lorazepam (Ativan).
- C. Manually ventilate the patient with a bag-valve-mask device.
- D. Increase the rate for the ordered propofol (Diprivan) infusion.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Verbally coach the patient to breathe with the ventilator. This approach allows the nurse to address the patient's anxiety and help them synchronize their breathing with the ventilator, promoting better ventilation and oxygenation. It is important to first try non-invasive interventions before resorting to sedation or manual ventilation. Sedating the patient (B) should be a last resort to avoid potential complications. Manual ventilation (C) may disrupt the ventilator settings and cause respiratory distress. Increasing the rate of propofol infusion (D) is not indicated unless the patient's sedation level is inadequate.
The charge nurse is supervising care for a group of patients monitored with a variety of invasive hemodynamic devices. Which patient should the charge nurse evaluate first?
- A. A patient with a central venous pressure (RAP/CVP) oafb i6rb .mcomm/ teHstg and 40 mL of urine output in the past hour
- B. A patient with a left radial arterial line with a BP of 11 0/60 mm Hg and slightly dampened arterial waveform
- C. A patient with a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure of 25 mm Hg and an oxygen saturation of 89% on 3 L of oxygen via nasal cannula
- D. A patient with a pulmonary artery pressure of 25/10 mm Hg and an oxygen saturation of 94% on 2 L of oxygen via nasal cannula
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure of 25 mm Hg indicates possible fluid overload or cardiac issue requiring urgent evaluation. This value is high, suggesting increased pressure in the left side of the heart. Additionally, the oxygen saturation of 89% on 3 L of oxygen indicates potential respiratory compromise. This patient needs immediate assessment and intervention to prevent worsening of their condition.
Choice A is incorrect as a central venous pressure of 6 mm Hg is within normal limits, and the urine output is adequate. Choice B is incorrect as a BP of 110/60 mm Hg is acceptable, and a slightly dampened arterial waveform is not an immediate concern. Choice D is incorrect as a pulmonary artery pressure of 25/10 mm Hg is within normal range, and an oxygen saturation of 94% on 2 L of oxygen is acceptable.
When assessing an older patient admitted to the emergency department (ED) with a broken arm and facial bruises, the nurse observes several additional bruises in various stages of healing. Which statement or question by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Do you feel safe in your home?
- B. You should not return to your home.
- C. Would you like to see a social worker?
- D. I need to report my concerns to the police.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Do you feel safe in your home?" This question is most appropriate because it directly addresses the potential issue of elder abuse without assuming or accusing the patient. It allows the patient to disclose any safety concerns and initiates a conversation about their well-being. Options B and D are inappropriate as they are accusatory and may escalate the situation. Option C is not as direct and may not effectively address the safety concerns of the patient.