Nokea
What is the significance of progesterone in confirming ovulation?
- A. Low progesterone levels indicate successful ovulation.
- B. Elevated progesterone levels confirm that ovulation has occurred.
- C. Progesterone levels do not fluctuate during the cycle.
- D. Progesterone testing is only relevant during pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Elevated progesterone levels confirm that ovulation has occurred. Progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum after ovulation, supporting the uterine lining for potential implantation. Elevated progesterone levels indicate a functional corpus luteum, which only occurs after ovulation. Low progesterone levels do not indicate successful ovulation as they may suggest anovulation or inadequate luteal phase support. Progesterone levels fluctuate during the menstrual cycle, peaking post-ovulation. Progesterone testing is not only relevant during pregnancy but also in assessing ovulation and menstrual cycle health.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse provides teaching for a patient scheduled for genetic testing. What should the nurse do to help the patient understand what is being taught?
- A. Use simple vocabulary.
- B. Avoid the use of jargon.
- C. Speak slowly and clearly.
- D. Ask the patient to verbalize what was learned.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because asking the patient to verbalize what was learned promotes active learning and helps assess the patient's understanding. It allows the nurse to clarify any misconceptions and reinforce important information. Choice A may be helpful but not sufficient. Choice B is important but may not fully address comprehension. Choice C focuses on communication style rather than assessing understanding.
The nurse responsible for completing the medical history during a couple's initial visit to the reproductive medicine clinic recognizes which of the following as the leading cause of tubal factor infertility in the female?
- A. History of endometriosis
- B. History of pelvic inflammatory disease
- C. History of ectopic pregnancy
- D. History of Asherman's syndrome
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale:
B: History of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is the leading cause of tubal factor infertility as it can lead to scarring and blockages in the fallopian tubes, hindering the passage of eggs.
A: Endometriosis can affect fertility but is not the leading cause of tubal factor infertility.
C: Ectopic pregnancy can result from tubal issues but is not the leading cause of tubal factor infertility.
D: Asherman's syndrome involves scarring in the uterus, not the fallopian tubes, making it less likely to be the leading cause of tubal factor infertility.
What is the significance of a hysteroscopy in infertility evaluation?
- A. To measure hormone levels in the uterus.
- B. To visualize and treat abnormalities within the uterine cavity.
- C. To monitor egg development during ovulation induction.
- D. To assess ovarian reserve through imaging.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To visualize and treat abnormalities within the uterine cavity. A hysteroscopy is a minimally invasive procedure that allows direct visualization of the inside of the uterus using a thin, lighted tube. In infertility evaluation, it helps identify and treat issues such as polyps, fibroids, adhesions, or other abnormalities that may be interfering with implantation or causing recurrent miscarriages. It is crucial for improving fertility outcomes.
Choice A is incorrect because a hysteroscopy does not measure hormone levels in the uterus. Choice C is incorrect because monitoring egg development is typically done through ultrasound imaging, not hysteroscopy. Choice D is incorrect because assessing ovarian reserve is usually done through blood tests and ultrasound evaluation of the ovaries, not hysteroscopy.
Assessment of a pregnant woman reveals that the presenting part of the fetus is at the level of the maternal ischial spines. The nurse documents this as which station?
- A. -2
- B. -1
- D. 1
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Zero (0) station is designated when the presenting part is at the level of the maternal ischial spines. Minus stations are used when the presenting part is above the ischial spines, and plus stations are used when the presenting part is below the ischial spines.
During preconception counseling, a nurse discusses the impact of male age on fertility. What statement requires correction?
- A. Pregnancy rates are not related to the age of the male partner.
- B. Sexually active males should be routinely tested for STIs and treated appropriately.
- C. Maintaining a healthy weight is important for the reproductive health of both female and male partners.
- D. Certain medications, such as testosterone supplementation and chemotherapy, can impact male fertility.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because male age does impact fertility. Advanced paternal age is associated with decreased fertility and increased risk of genetic abnormalities in offspring. Choice B is correct as STIs can affect fertility. Choice C is relevant as obesity can impact male fertility. Choice D is correct as certain medications can impact male fertility. Overall, choice A is incorrect as male age does play a role in fertility outcomes.