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What lab value should be prioritized for monitoring in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. Hemoglobin levels
- C. Serum albumin levels
- D. White blood cell count
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of their immune system. A CD4 count below 200 cells/mm3 is indicative of severe immunocompromise, necessitating close monitoring and potential intervention. Choices B, C, and D are less specific to HIV management and do not directly reflect the immune status in these patients. Hemoglobin levels are more relevant for assessing anemia, serum albumin levels for nutritional status, and white blood cell count for overall immune response, but none are as directly tied to HIV disease progression as the CD4 T-cell count.
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What should be done when continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber?
- A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
- B. Replace the chest tube system
- C. Clamp the chest tube
- D. Continue to monitor the chest tube
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the appropriate action is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This may resolve an air leak that is causing the continuous bubbling. Option B, replacing the chest tube system, is not the initial step to take and is considered more invasive. Clamping the chest tube (option C) can lead to complications and should not be done unless instructed by a healthcare provider. Continuing to monitor the chest tube (option D) without taking any corrective action may delay necessary interventions.
A patient with hypokalemia is being monitored. What should the nurse assess for?
- A. Muscle weakness
- B. Flattened T waves
- C. Checking deep tendon reflexes
- D. Seizures
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: A patient with hypokalemia is being monitored. What should the nurse assess for?
Corrected Choice A: Muscle weakness
Corrected Choice B: Flattened T waves
Corrected Choice C: Checking deep tendon reflexes
Corrected Choice D: Seizures
Rationale: Hypokalemia is associated with muscle weakness due to the effect of low potassium levels on muscle function. Flattened T waves on an ECG are characteristic of hypokalemia but are not a direct assessment for the patient's condition. Checking deep tendon reflexes and seizures are not primary symptoms associated with hypokalemia, making them less relevant for monitoring a patient with this electrolyte imbalance.
What is the initial action for treating chest pain in acute coronary syndrome?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Administer aspirin
- C. Check cardiac enzymes
- D. Obtain IV access
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct initial action for treating chest pain in acute coronary syndrome is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, reducing the workload on the heart and improving blood flow to the heart muscle. Administering aspirin can also be beneficial, but the priority is to address chest pain promptly. Checking cardiac enzymes and obtaining IV access are important steps but are not the initial actions needed to alleviate chest pain in acute coronary syndrome.
A patient with GERD is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. What should the nurse recommend?
- A. Avoid mint and pepper
- B. Increase fluid intake before meals
- C. Eat three large meals per day
- D. Avoid drinking water with meals
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid foods like mint and pepper, as these can help reduce gastric acid secretion and alleviate symptoms. Mint and pepper are known to relax the lower esophageal sphincter, leading to increased reflux. Increasing fluid intake before meals (choice B) may worsen GERD symptoms by distending the stomach. Eating three large meals per day (choice C) can also aggravate GERD because large meals can lead to increased gastric pressure and reflux. Avoiding drinking water with meals (choice D) is generally recommended for GERD; however, the most crucial advice in this case is to avoid mint and pepper for better symptom management.
What teaching should be provided to a patient following surgical removal of a cataract?
- A. Avoid NSAIDs
- B. Wear dark glasses while outdoors
- C. Creamy white drainage is normal
- D. Reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct teaching to provide to a patient following surgical removal of a cataract is to avoid NSAIDs. NSAIDs can increase the risk of bleeding at the surgical site, so it is important to steer clear of them. Choice B, wearing dark glasses while outdoors, may be recommended post-surgery to protect the eyes from bright light, but it is not the priority teaching in this case. Choice C, stating that creamy white drainage is normal, is not accurate as drainage from the eye should be monitored and reported. Choice D, reducing phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day, is unrelated to post-cataract surgery care and is not a necessary teaching point.