Nokea
What might be suggested to a client with fibrocystic breasts in an attempt to help relieve symptoms?
- A. Increase intake of high-calcium foods in your diet
- B. Wear a supportive bra during the day and at night
- C. Take over-the-counter pain relievers
- D. Perform regular breast massage
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Wear a supportive bra during the day and at night.' Wearing a supportive bra is essential for individuals with fibrocystic breasts as it helps relieve discomfort by providing necessary support to reduce strain on breast tissue. Option A is incorrect as high-calcium foods are not directly related to symptom relief in fibrocystic breasts. Option C is not the first-line recommendation and may not address the underlying issue. Option D, performing regular breast massage, is not typically recommended and may not provide significant relief for fibrocystic breast symptoms.
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A client with cirrhosis is at risk for bleeding due to impaired liver function. Which laboratory result is the most important to monitor?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
- D. Serum albumin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is a critical indicator of bleeding risk in clients with liver dysfunction. Impaired liver function reduces clotting factor production, leading to an increased PT, which requires close monitoring. Monitoring BUN (Choice A) is more indicative of kidney function, not clotting ability. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) (Choice C) and serum albumin (Choice D) are important indicators of liver function, but they do not directly assess the client's bleeding risk.
An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports a weak pulse of 44 beats per minute in a client. What action should the charge nurse implement?
- A. Have the UAP recheck the pulse and report back.
- B. Have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for apical-radial pulse deficit.
- C. Call the healthcare provider for further instructions.
- D. Immediately call the healthcare provider and prepare for transfer to critical care.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action is to have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for an apical-radial pulse deficit. This assessment can provide further information about the client's cardiovascular status and help determine if further intervention is necessary. Having the UAP recheck the pulse may delay appropriate assessment and intervention. Calling the healthcare provider for further instructions may not be necessary at this point unless the LPN assessment indicates a need for it. Immediately transferring the client to critical care without further assessment is not warranted based solely on the initial report of a weak pulse.
A male client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer prescribed anticoagulant.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Auscultate lung sounds.
- D. Prepare for chest physiotherapy.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering an anticoagulant is the nurse's priority action in this situation. Given the client's history of DVT and the presentation of new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough, there is a concern for a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening complication of DVT. Administering an anticoagulant promptly is crucial to prevent further clot formation and to manage the existing clot, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism. While auscultating lung sounds and preparing for chest physiotherapy are important actions in respiratory assessment and management, the priority in this case is to address the potential complication of a pulmonary embolism by administering the anticoagulant. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating the immediate intervention of anticoagulant therapy.
The healthcare worker is wearing PPE while caring for a client. When exiting the room, which PPE should be removed first?
- A. Gloves
- B. Face shield
- C. Mask
- D. Gown
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Gloves should be removed first as they are most likely to be contaminated. This is followed by the gown, then face shield, and mask. Correct removal sequence helps prevent contamination. Removing gloves first reduces the risk of transferring pathogens from the gloves to other PPE or surfaces. Face shield and mask should be removed last as they protect mucous membranes from exposure to contaminants. Removing PPE in the correct sequence is crucial in preventing the spread of infections.
A client in heart failure (HF) presents with weakness and poor urine output. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?
- A. Heart rate of 122 bpm and respiratory rate of 28.
- B. Yellow sputum expectorated.
- C. Temperature of 100.5°F (38.1°C).
- D. Shortness of breath on exertion.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An elevated temperature may indicate infection and should be treated immediately in a client with heart failure.