What pathophysiological events occur sequentially in the development of atherosclerosis?
- A. Foam cells release growth factors.
- B. Smooth muscle grows over fatty streaks creating fibrous plaques.
- C. Macrophages consume low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and create foam cells.
- D. Arterial endothelium injury causes inflammation.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct sequence of pathophysiological events in the development of atherosclerosis starts with arterial endothelium injury causing inflammation. This inflammation triggers the formation of foam cells by macrophages consuming low-density lipoprotein (LDL). Subsequently, smooth muscle grows over fatty streaks, creating fibrous plaques. Therefore, option D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate chronological order of events in the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis.
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Which dietary instruction is most important for a client with renal disease?
- A. Avoid all protein-rich foods.
- B. Limit fluid intake to 1500 ml/day.
- C. Increase potassium intake to prevent weakness.
- D. Eat small, frequent meals high in carbohydrates.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most important dietary instruction for a client with renal disease is to limit fluid intake to 1500 ml/day. This is essential to prevent fluid overload, manage electrolyte balance, and reduce strain on the kidneys. Choice A is incorrect because while protein restriction may be necessary in some cases, avoiding all protein-rich foods is not recommended as some protein intake is essential for overall health. Choice C is incorrect because increasing potassium intake is generally not advised for clients with renal disease, as they often need to limit potassium intake. Choice D is also incorrect because while consuming small, frequent meals may be helpful, emphasizing a diet high in carbohydrates is not typically the primary focus for clients with renal disease.
A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. What assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?
- A. Increased urine output and weight loss.
- B. Increased heart rate and blood pressure.
- C. Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.
- D. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.' In a client with heart failure, furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload. Therefore, a decrease in edema (swelling due to fluid retention) and improved peripheral pulses (indicating better circulation) are signs that the medication is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output and weight loss (Choice A) may indicate the diuretic effect of furosemide but do not specifically reflect its effectiveness in heart failure. Increased heart rate and blood pressure (Choice B) are not desired effects of furosemide and may suggest adverse reactions. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds (Choice D) are related to improved respiratory status and may not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in addressing fluid overload.
A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder has been referred to a local boarding home for consideration for placement. The social worker telephoned the hospital unit for information about the client's mental status and adjustment. The appropriate response of the nurse should be which of these statements?
- A. I am sorry. Referral information can only be provided by the client's health care providers.
- B. I can never give any information out by telephone. How do I know who you are?
- C. Since this is a referral, I can give you this information.
- D. I need to get the client's written consent before I release any information to you.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "I need to get the client's written consent before I release any information to you." In this scenario, the nurse must obtain the client's written consent before disclosing any information to the social worker. This process ensures compliance with privacy laws like HIPAA, which are designed to protect client confidentiality. Choice A is incorrect because it does not address the need for consent. Choice B is incorrect as it is unprofessional and does not focus on obtaining consent. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests information can be shared without consent, which goes against privacy laws.
After receiving hemodialysis, what is the nurse's priority assessment for a client with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Monitor the client's potassium level.
- B. Assess the client's blood pressure.
- C. Check the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
- D. Monitor for signs of infection.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's potassium level. During hemodialysis, there is a risk of potassium shifting, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias if not properly managed. Assessing the potassium level is crucial to prevent complications. While assessing blood pressure, checking hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, and monitoring for signs of infection are important aspects of care for a client with chronic kidney disease, monitoring potassium levels takes precedence due to its immediate life-threatening potential post-dialysis.
What breakfast selection indicates appropriate dietary management for osteoporosis?
- A. Pancakes with syrup and orange juice
- B. Bagel with jelly and skim milk
- C. Eggs with sausage and whole milk
- D. French toast with butter and syrup
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A bagel with jelly and skim milk is a calcium-rich and low-fat option that aligns with the dietary recommendations for managing osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones, so it is essential to consume an adequate amount of calcium while avoiding excess fat intake. Choices A, C, and D are not ideal for osteoporosis management as they either lack sufficient calcium, contain high fat content, or both.