LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions

LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions Related

Review LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions related questions and content

What predisposing factor most likely contributed to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman who lives alone and tripped on a rug in her home?

  • A. Failing eyesight leading to an unsafe environment
  • B. Renal osteodystrophy from chronic kidney disease (CKD)
  • C. Osteoporosis from declining hormone levels
  • D. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most likely predisposing factor contributing to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman is osteoporosis resulting from declining hormone levels. Osteoporosis weakens the bones, making them more susceptible to fractures, especially in older adults, particularly women. In this case, the fracture can be attributed to the bone density loss associated with osteoporosis, which is a common concern in postmenopausal women. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the femur fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight may increase the risk of falls but does not directly weaken the bones. Renal osteodystrophy affects bone health but is less common in this age group. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks are related to vascular issues, not bone strength.

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The healthcare professional is assisting in the care of a client diagnosed with heart failure. The client is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the healthcare professional monitor most closely?

  • A. Serum calcium
  • B. Serum potassium
  • C. Serum sodium
  • D. Serum glucose
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to significant potassium loss, making it crucial to monitor the client's serum potassium levels. Hypokalemia (low potassium levels) can result from furosemide use, potentially leading to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, close monitoring of serum potassium levels is essential to prevent complications in clients receiving furosemide. Monitoring serum calcium, sodium, or glucose levels is not the priority when administering furosemide.

An adolescent girl has decided to become a vegetarian. The primary care NP should counsel her about iron intake and considering a vitamin containing:

  • A. zinc.
  • B. vitamin A.
  • C. vitamin C.
  • D. potassium.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because vegetarians often lack zinc, critical alongside iron. Choice B is incorrect (vitamin A not primary). Choice C is wrong (vitamin C aids iron, not primary). Choice D is inaccurate (potassium unrelated).

While assessing a client taking propranolol, which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

  • A. Bradycardia
  • B. Dry mouth
  • C. Constipation
  • D. Increased appetite
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is a significant side effect of propranolol, a beta-blocker that slows the heart rate. It indicates potential cardiovascular complications and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Dry mouth, constipation, and increased appetite are common side effects of various medications but are not directly associated with propranolol's mechanism of action.

The NP chooses to give cephalexin every 8 hours based on knowledge of the drug's:

  • A. Propensity to go to the target receptor
  • B. Biological half-life
  • C. Pharmacodynamics
  • D. Safety and side effects
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is correct because dosing cephalexin every 8 hours aligns with its biological half-life, the time it takes for half the drug to be eliminated, ensuring steady therapeutic levels. Choice A is incorrect as ‘propensity to target receptor' isn't a standard pharmacokinetic term for dosing decisions. Choice C is wrong because pharmacodynamics (drug effects) informs efficacy, not timing. Choice D is incorrect since safety and side effects influence drug choice, not specifically the 8-hour interval.

A client with myocardial infarction suddenly becomes tachycardic, shows signs of air hunger, and begins coughing frothy, pink-tinged sputum. The nurse listens to breath sounds, expecting to hear which breath sounds bilaterally?

  • A. Rhonchi
  • B. Crackles
  • C. Wheezes
  • D. Diminished breath sounds
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is exhibiting signs of pulmonary edema, which can occur as a complication of myocardial infarction. Crackles are typically heard in cases of pulmonary edema, characterized by fluid accumulation in the lungs. These crackling sounds are heard during inspiration and sometimes expiration and are an indication of fluid-filled alveoli. Therefore, when assessing the client with these symptoms, the nurse would expect to hear crackles bilaterally. Rhonchi, which are coarse rattling respiratory sounds, are typically associated with conditions like bronchitis or pneumonia, not pulmonary edema. Wheezes are high-pitched musical sounds heard in conditions like asthma or COPD, not commonly present in pulmonary edema. Diminished breath sounds suggest decreased airflow or lung consolidation, not typical findings in pulmonary edema.

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