What should a male client over age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?
- A. Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly
- B. Have a transrectal ultrasound every 5 years
- C. Perform monthly testicular self-examinations, especially after age 50
- D. Have a complete blood count (CBC) and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For male clients over age 50, early identification of prostate cancer involves a combination of regular digital rectal examination and PSA test. The digital rectal examination allows a healthcare provider to manually assess the size, shape, and consistency of the prostate gland, looking for any abnormalities such as nodules or hard areas that may indicate prostate cancer. The PSA test measures the level of prostate-specific antigen in the blood, with elevated levels potentially signaling the presence of prostate cancer. Yearly screening using both these methods increases the chances of early detection and optimal management of prostate cancer in older male clients. Regular monitoring helps in identifying the disease at an earlier, more treatable stage, improving outcomes and prognosis.
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Which of the ff precautions must a nurse take while caring for clients with HIV/AIDS to reduce occupational risks?
- A. Transport specimens of body fluid in leakproof containers
- B. Seek prescription for a fusion inhibitor to reduce risk of infection
- C. Avoid administering IV drugs
- D. Avoid cleaning the clients room, esp cleaning urine, stool, or vomit
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When caring for clients with HIV/AIDS to reduce occupational risks, a nurse must take precautions to minimize the risk of exposure to body fluids that may contain the HIV virus. Transporting specimens of body fluid in leakproof containers helps prevent accidental spills or leakages that could lead to exposure. Proper handling and containment of body fluids are essential to reducing the risk of transmission of HIV to healthcare workers. This precaution is in line with standard infection control practices to ensure the safety of healthcare providers and minimize the risk of occupational exposure to bloodborne pathogens like HIV.
The nurse is caring for a 32-year old client admitted with pernicious anemia. Which set of findings should the nurse expect when assessing the client?
- A. Pallor, bradycardia, and reduced pule
- B. Sore tongue, dyspnea, and weight gain
- C. Angina, double vision, and anorexia
- D. Pallor, tachycardia, and a sore tongue
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pernicious anemia is a type of megaloblastic anemia caused by the body's inability to absorb vitamin B12, essential for the production of red blood cells. The characteristic findings associated with pernicious anemia include pallor due to decreased red blood cells, tachycardia as the heart compensates for decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, and a sore tongue (glossitis) due to vitamin B12 deficiency affecting the oral mucosa. Therefore, the nurse should expect to find pallor, tachycardia, and a sore tongue when assessing a client with pernicious anemia.
Which of the following guidekines does not observe surgical asepisi in the operating room?
- A. sterile articles may touch other sterile articles or surface and remain sterile
- B. gowns of surgical team are considered sterile in front from the chest down to the bottom of the gown
- C. whenever a sterile barrier is breached, the area must be considered contaminated
- D. sterile drapes are used to create a sterile field
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This statement is incorrect and does not observe surgical asepsis in the operating room. In surgical asepsis, it is crucial that sterile articles do not touch other sterile articles or surfaces to prevent contamination. Any contact between sterile items or surfaces can lead to the transfer of microorganisms, compromising the sterility of the environment. Maintaining a sterile field is essential to prevent surgical site infections and ensure the safety of the patient undergoing the procedure.
The single parent of a 3-year-old child who has just been diagnosed with chickenpox tells the nurse that she cannot afford to stay home with the child and miss work. The parent asks the nurse if some medication will shorten the course of the illness. Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
- A. Reassure the parent that it is not necessary to stay home with the child.
- B. Explain that no medication will shorten the course of the illness.
- C. Explain the advantages of the medication acyclovir (Zovirax) to treat chickenpox.
- D. Explain the advantages of the medication VCZ immune globulin (VariZIG) to treat chickenpox.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention in this scenario is to explain to the parent that no medication will shorten the course of chickenpox. Chickenpox is a viral illness caused by the varicella-zoster virus, and there is no specific treatment to shorten its duration. Antiviral medications like acyclovir are typically reserved for severe cases or for individuals with compromised immune systems. VCZ immune globulin (VariZIG) is used for post-exposure prophylaxis in susceptible individuals who have been exposed to chickenpox and are at high risk for severe disease.
A patient who has just had a TURP asks his nurse to explain why he has to have the bladder irrigation because it seems to increase his pain. Which of the following explanations by the nurse is best?
- A. "The bladder irrigation is needed to stop the bleeding in the bladder."
- B. "Antibiotics are being administered into the bladder to prevent infection."
- C. "The irrigation is needed to keep the catheter from becoming occluded by blood clots."
- D. "Normal production of urine is maintained with the irrigations until healing can occur."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best explanation for the patient is option C, which states, "The irrigation is needed to keep the catheter from becoming occluded by blood clots." After a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), it is common for the patient to have some bleeding in the bladder. Bladder irrigation is done to prevent blood clots from forming and blocking the catheter. Keeping the catheter patent is important to ensure proper drainage of urine and prevent complications such as urinary retention. While the other options are related to potential reasons for bladder irrigation, option C directly addresses the immediate concern of preventing catheter occlusion by blood clots post-TURP surgery.