Nokea
What should a male client over age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?
- A. Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly
- B. Have a transrectal ultrasound every 5 years
- C. Perform monthly testicular self-examinations, especially after age 50
- D. Have a complete blood count (CBC) and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly. This is because regular screening with both tests can help detect prostate cancer early. The digital rectal exam allows the doctor to feel for any abnormalities in the prostate gland, while the PSA test measures the levels of a specific protein produced by the prostate gland. If there are any concerning findings, further diagnostic tests can be done to confirm prostate cancer.
Choice B is incorrect because transrectal ultrasound is not a recommended screening test for prostate cancer. Choice C is incorrect as testicular self-examinations are for detecting testicular cancer, not prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as CBC, BUN, and creatinine levels are not specific tests for prostate cancer screening.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which of the ff. conditions places a patient at risk for respiratory complications following his splenectomy?
- A. A low platelet count
- B. Early ambulation
- C. An incision near the diaphragm
- D. Early discharge
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: An incision near the diaphragm. Following a splenectomy, an incision near the diaphragm can lead to respiratory complications due to potential irritation or injury to the diaphragm. This can result in impaired breathing and increased risk of respiratory issues such as pneumonia.
A: A low platelet count is not directly related to respiratory complications following a splenectomy.
B: Early ambulation is generally encouraged to prevent complications such as blood clots but does not specifically impact respiratory complications.
D: Early discharge may not directly lead to respiratory complications, as long as the patient is adequately monitored postoperatively.
A goal for a patient with diabetes is to demonstrate effective coping skills. Which patient behavior will indicate to the nurse achievement of this outcome?
- A. States feels better after talking with family and friends
- B. Consumes high-carbohydrate foods when stressed
- C. Dislikes the support group meetings
- D. Spends most of the day in bed
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because stating feeling better after talking with family and friends demonstrates the use of healthy coping skills. This behavior indicates the patient is seeking and utilizing social support, which is crucial for managing stress and emotions effectively in diabetes management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because consuming high-carbohydrate foods when stressed can lead to poor blood sugar control, disliking support group meetings indicates avoidance of beneficial support resources, and spending most of the day in bed can contribute to physical and emotional deterioration, rather than effective coping.
Serum albumin Is to be administered intravenously to client with ascites, The expected outcome of this treatment will be a decrease in:
- A. Urinary output
- B. Serum ammonia level
- C. Abdominal girth
- D. Hepatic encephalopathy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Abdominal girth. Serum albumin helps to increase oncotic pressure in the blood vessels, reducing fluid leakage into the abdomen and decreasing ascites, leading to a decrease in abdominal girth. Option A is incorrect because serum albumin does not directly affect urinary output. Option B is incorrect as serum albumin does not directly impact serum ammonia levels. Option D is incorrect because while serum albumin can help improve liver function, it does not directly treat hepatic encephalopathy.
In teaching a female client who is HIV positive about pregnancy, the nurse would know more teaching is necessary when the client says:
- A. “The baby can get the virus from my placenta.”
- B. “I’m planning on starting on birth control pills.”
- C. “Not everyone who has the virus gives birth to a baby who has the virus.”
- D. “I’ll need to have a C-section if I become pregnant and have a baby.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because starting birth control pills does not protect against HIV transmission to the baby during pregnancy. The other choices demonstrate understanding of HIV transmission risks and prevention methods. A shows awareness of vertical transmission, C recognizes that not all babies born to HIV-positive mothers are infected, and D acknowledges the potential need for a C-section to reduce transmission risk. Starting birth control pills is unrelated to preventing mother-to-child HIV transmission during pregnancy.
A client who is receiving a blood transfusion begins to experience chills, shortness of breath, nausea, excessive perspiration, and a vague sense of uneasiness. What is the nurse’s first best action?
- A. Report the signs and symptoms to the
- B. Monitor the client’s vital signs
- C. Assess respiratory status
- D. Stop the infusion
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Stop the infusion. This is the best action because the client is likely experiencing a transfusion reaction. Stopping the infusion immediately is crucial to prevent further complications. Reporting the signs and symptoms to the healthcare provider (A) can cause a delay in addressing the reaction. While monitoring vital signs (B) and assessing respiratory status (C) are important, stopping the infusion takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and prevent a severe reaction.