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What should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of enoxaparin in a patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- C. International normalized ratio (INR)
- D. Platelet count
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin that primarily affects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.
2. INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulants affecting the intrinsic pathway.
3. Monitoring INR helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range to prevent clotting without excessive bleeding.
4. PT and PTT primarily evaluate the extrinsic and intrinsic pathways, respectively, not specific to enoxaparin.
5. Platelet count is not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of enoxaparin in treating DVT.
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A patient with epilepsy is prescribed phenytoin. What is the primary side effect the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Gingival hyperplasia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival overgrowth as a side effect. This is due to its effect on fibroblasts in the gums, leading to increased connective tissue production. Hypotension (A), bradycardia (C), and hyperkalemia (D) are not common side effects of phenytoin. Monitoring for gingival hyperplasia is crucial to prevent complications such as difficulty in eating, speaking, and maintaining oral hygiene.
A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with increasing shortness of breath. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Barrel-shaped chest.
- B. Use of accessory muscles to breathe.
- C. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
- D. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxygen saturation of 88%. In COPD patients, low oxygen saturation indicates inadequate gas exchange and potential respiratory distress. Oxygen saturation below 90% requires immediate intervention to prevent hypoxemia. A: Barrel-shaped chest is a common finding in COPD due to hyperinflation, but it is not a critical indicator of acute exacerbation. B: Use of accessory muscles suggests increased work of breathing but may not be as urgent as low oxygen saturation. D: Respiratory rate is within normal range, so it is less concerning than the low oxygen saturation.
A patient with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. When should the patient take this medication for optimal effectiveness?
- A. With meals
- B. At bedtime
- C. Before meals
- D. After meals
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Before meals. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works best when taken before meals to inhibit acid secretion before food intake. Taking it with meals (choice A) may decrease its effectiveness as it needs time to be absorbed. Taking it at bedtime (choice B) may not provide optimal coverage throughout the day. Taking it after meals (choice D) may not allow enough time for the medication to start working before the next meal.
A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed ranitidine (Zantac). Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. I will take this medication at bedtime.
- B. I need to avoid smoking while taking this medication.
- C. I should take this medication with meals.
- D. This medication will help reduce stomach acid.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
C is the correct answer. Ranitidine is usually taken on an empty stomach to maximize its effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production. Therefore, taking it with meals would decrease its efficacy. A, B, and D are incorrect because taking ranitidine at bedtime is common practice, smoking can worsen ulcer symptoms, and ranitidine does indeed reduce stomach acid.
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Reduce mucus production
- B. Relieve bronchospasm
- C. Suppress cough
- D. Thin respiratory secretions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieve bronchospasm. Tiotropium is an anticholinergic medication that acts by relaxing the muscles around the airways, thereby helping to relieve bronchospasm in patients with COPD. This results in improved airflow and reduced shortness of breath.
A: Reduce mucus production - This is incorrect as tiotropium does not directly affect mucus production but rather focuses on bronchospasm relief.
C: Suppress cough - Tiotropium may help with cough associated with COPD by improving airflow, but its primary purpose is not to suppress cough.
D: Thin respiratory secretions - Tiotropium does not have a direct effect on thinning respiratory secretions; its main action is bronchodilation to relieve bronchospasm in COPD.