What should the nurse do after a 36-year-old patient treated with intramuscular glucagon for hypoglycemia regains consciousness?
- A. Assess the patient for symptoms of hyperglycemia.
- B. Give the patient a snack of peanut butter and crackers.
- C. Have the patient drink a glass of orange juice or nonfat milk.
- D. Administer a continuous infusion of 5% dextrose for 24 hours.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After a patient treated with intramuscular glucagon for hypoglycemia regains consciousness, providing a snack of peanut butter and crackers is essential to prevent another episode of hypoglycemia. Peanut butter and crackers contain a combination of protein and carbohydrates, which can help stabilize the patient's blood glucose levels. This choice is the most appropriate immediate action to prevent recurrence of hypoglycemia in this scenario. Assessing for symptoms of hyperglycemia (choice A) is not the immediate priority after treating hypoglycemia. While orange juice or nonfat milk (choice C) can help raise blood sugar, they lack the sustained effect of protein found in peanut butter. Administering continuous infusion of dextrose (choice D) is excessive and not indicated after the patient has already regained consciousness.
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An RN’s client with terminal pancreatic cancer asks questions about a do not resuscitate order. Which of the following statements should be included in the RN’s teaching to the client?
- A. When a heart ceases to beat, the client is pronounced clinically dead.
- B. Physicians must write do not resuscitate (DNR) orders.
- C. A DNR order can be written after the health-care provider has discussed it with the client and family.
- D. A DNR requires a court decision.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
When should the nurse initiate discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure?
- A. During the admission process
- B. As soon as the client's condition is stable
- C. After consulting with the client's family
- D. During the initial team conference
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct time for the nurse to initiate discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure is as soon as the client's condition is stable. Discharge planning should begin early in the admission process to ensure a smooth transition and continuity of care. While involving the client's family in the planning process is crucial, the primary focus should be on starting the preparations for discharge once the client's immediate health concerns are addressed and their condition is stable. Waiting for a team conference or after consulting with the family may delay the planning process, which is not ideal in ensuring a timely and effective discharge plan.
When is the first opportunity for a manager to reduce turnover?
- A. When the decision to hire a new employee is made
- B. After one month of employment
- C. After three months of employment
- D. After a certain tenure period
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The manager's first opportunity to reduce turnover occurs after three months of employment. During this period, the manager can assess the employee's performance, engagement, and fit within the organization. It allows the manager to address any concerns, provide support, and intervene early to prevent turnover. Waiting until after a certain tenure period might be too late to effectively mitigate turnover risk, as issues could have already escalated. Therefore, the three-month mark is a critical point for managers to proactively manage turnover. Choices A and B are incorrect because they do not allow sufficient time for the manager to evaluate the employee and take proactive measures to reduce turnover. Choice D is incorrect as it is too vague and does not provide a specific actionable timeframe for addressing turnover concerns.
A 48-year-old male patient screened for diabetes at a clinic has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L). The nurse will plan to teach the patient about
- A. self-monitoring of blood glucose
- B. using low doses of regular insulin
- C. lifestyle changes to lower blood glucose
- D. effects of oral hypoglycemic medications
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a patient has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L), indicating prediabetes, the initial approach is focused on lifestyle modifications to lower blood glucose levels. These changes may include dietary adjustments, increased physical activity, and weight management. Self-monitoring of blood glucose, insulin therapy, and oral hypoglycemic medications are not typically the first-line interventions for patients with prediabetes. Educating the patient about lifestyle changes to lower blood glucose is the most appropriate action at this stage.
What is the primary focus of a patient-centered care model?
- A. Cost reduction
- B. Healthcare provider satisfaction
- C. Patient satisfaction
- D. Quality assurance
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary focus of a patient-centered care model is on patient satisfaction. This approach emphasizes providing care that is personalized to meet the unique needs and preferences of each patient, fostering a collaborative and respectful partnership between healthcare providers and patients to achieve better health outcomes. Choice A, cost reduction, is not the primary focus but can be a byproduct of improved outcomes. Choice B, healthcare provider satisfaction, while important, is not the primary focus of patient-centered care. Choice D, quality assurance, is essential but not the primary focus when compared to patient satisfaction in a patient-centered care model.