Nokea
What side effect should be monitored for in a patient with chronic heart failure taking spironolactone?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in patients with heart failure. It works by blocking the aldosterone receptor, leading to potassium retention and potential hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as hyperkalemia can increase the risk of arrhythmias and other cardiac complications in heart failure patients.
A: Hypokalemia is incorrect because spironolactone typically causes potassium retention.
C: Hyponatremia and D: Hypernatremia are incorrect as spironolactone does not directly affect sodium levels.
In summary, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential in patients with heart failure taking spironolactone to prevent adverse cardiac events.
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A patient with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa. What dietary modification should the nurse suggest to the patient?
- A. Increase intake of vitamin C.
- B. Limit foods high in protein.
- C. Avoid foods rich in fiber.
- D. Increase sodium intake.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit foods high in protein. Levodopa competes with amino acids for absorption in the small intestine, so consuming high-protein foods can reduce its effectiveness. Limiting protein intake can help maximize the absorption and efficacy of levodopa. Increasing vitamin C (option A) is not directly related to levodopa metabolism. Avoiding fiber (option C) is not necessary for levodopa therapy. Increasing sodium intake (option D) is not indicated for levodopa treatment in Parkinson's disease.
A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Administer regular insulin intravenously.
- B. Give oral hypoglycemic agents.
- C. Administer sodium bicarbonate.
- D. Provide a high-calorie diet.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer regular insulin intravenously. In DKA, the priority is to lower blood glucose levels and correct acidosis. Regular insulin intravenously is the fastest way to reduce blood glucose levels. Oral hypoglycemic agents (B) are not effective in DKA. Sodium bicarbonate (C) is not routinely recommended in DKA as it may worsen acidosis. Providing a high-calorie diet (D) is not appropriate as the focus should be on treating the underlying condition first.
Why is a client with ascites scheduled for a paracentesis procedure?
- A. To diagnose liver disease
- B. To relieve abdominal pressure
- C. To assess kidney function
- D. To reduce blood pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To relieve abdominal pressure. Paracentesis is performed to drain excess fluid from the abdominal cavity, which helps alleviate symptoms like abdominal distension and discomfort in clients with ascites. It does not serve the purpose of diagnosing liver disease (A), assessing kidney function (C), or reducing blood pressure (D). The primary goal of paracentesis in this context is to provide symptomatic relief by removing the accumulated fluid, thereby reducing pressure on surrounding organs and improving the client's comfort and overall well-being.
The patient has a calcium level of 12.1 mg/dL. Which nursing action should the nurse include on the care plan?
- A. Maintain the patient on bed rest.
- B. Auscultate lung sounds every 4 hours.
- C. Monitor for Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs.
- D. Encourage fluid intake up to 4000 mL every day.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Encourage fluid intake up to 4000 mL every day. High calcium levels can lead to dehydration, so encouraging fluid intake helps prevent this complication. Increased fluid intake also promotes calcium excretion through urine. Bed rest (A) is not directly related to managing high calcium levels. Auscultating lung sounds (B) every 4 hours is more relevant for respiratory issues. Monitoring for Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs (C) is associated with low calcium levels, not high levels.
A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. What symptom should the nurse expect to find during the assessment?
- A. Joint pain
- B. Muscle weakness
- C. Loss of sensation
- D. Severe headache
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Muscle weakness. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by muscle weakness due to an autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. This leads to impaired muscle contraction and weakness, especially in the face, neck, and extremities. Joint pain (A) is not a typical symptom of myasthenia gravis. Loss of sensation (C) is more indicative of a sensory nerve disorder rather than a motor disorder like myasthenia gravis. Severe headache (D) is not a common symptom of myasthenia gravis; it is more likely to be associated with other conditions such as migraines or intracranial pathology.