Nokea
What specific part of the eye is primarily examined using an ophthalmoscope?
- A. Cornea
- B. Lens
- C. Retina
- D. Iris
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An ophthalmoscope is used to examine the retina, which includes the optic disc and blood vessels.
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An 80-year-old man is being evaluated for recent episodes of incontinence and confusion. His family states that he is usually independent with no altered mental issues but has become forgetful within the last 2 weeks. Which medication is most likely associated with these symptoms?
- A. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
- B. Warfarin (Coumadin)
- C. Ramipril (Altace)
- D. Vitamin B12
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cimetidine can cause confusion and altered mental status in the elderly.
Headache warning signs that need prompt investigation include all of the following except:
- A. New onset after 50
- B. Aggravated or relieved by change of position
- C. Precipitated by Valsalva maneuver
- D. Headaches relieved with mild recurrent use of analgesics
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Headaches relieved with mild, infrequent analgesic use typically don’t require urgent investigation.
A nurse practitioner examines the skin of an elderly patient. Which finding below is NOT a benign lesion associated with the aging process?
- A. Xerosis
- B. Cherry angiomas and senile purpura
- C. Senile keratosis and senile lentigines
- D. Dermatophytosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Dermatophytosis is a fungal infection and is not a normal aging change.
Snellen chart evaluation indicated that the patient vision is 20/30. What is the proper description of this result?
- A. At 20 feet, this patient can see what a person with normal vision can see at 30 feet
- B. At 30 feet, this patient can see what a person with normal vision can see at 20 feet
- C. At 20 feet, this patient can see what few people can see at 30 feet
- D. This patient has sight abilities that are worse than a patient with 20/40 vision
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: 20/30 means that at 20 feet, the patient can see what someone with normal vision sees at 30 feet.
A 72-year-old woman reports vaginal dryness that interferes with coitus. Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and osteoarthritis. Medications are glyburide, chlorthalidone, and acetaminophen. What would be your first step in therapy?
- A. Stop glyburide
- B. Stop chlorthalidone
- C. Stop acetaminophen
- D. Start topical vaginal lubricant
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Topical vaginal lubricants can help alleviate vaginal dryness and improve sexual function.