What symptom can partners of persons with PPD experience?
- A. depression
- B. psychosis
- C. bipolar disorder
- D. mania
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Partners of those with PPD can experience depression as they may feel overwhelmed and stressed by the challenges of caregiving.
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The nurse notices the uterus is boggy and the bladder is full. What intervention should the nurse perform next?
- A. Call for help.
- B. Start IV bolus.
- C. Get the person out of bed to walk to restroom.
- D. Massage the fundus and assess the lochia.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. A boggy uterus indicates uterine atony, a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage.
2. A full bladder can prevent the uterus from contracting effectively.
3. Massaging the fundus helps stimulate contractions to prevent further bleeding.
4. Assessing lochia provides information on the amount and type of bleeding.
5. This intervention addresses the underlying issue and promotes uterine contraction, reducing the risk of hemorrhage.
Other choices are incorrect:
A: Calling for help is not the immediate intervention needed to address the uterine atony and full bladder.
B: Starting an IV bolus may be necessary later but is not the priority in this situation.
C: Getting the person out of bed is not appropriate when managing postpartum hemorrhage; addressing uterine atony is crucial.
A client has been transferred to the post -anesthesia care unit from a cesarean delivery. The client had spinal anesthesia for the surgery. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform at this time?
- A. Assess the level of the anesthesia.
- B. Encourage the client to urinate in a bedpan.
- C. Provide the client with the diet of her choice.
- D. Check the incision for signs of infection.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After spinal anesthesia, it's important to assess the level of anesthesia to monitor for any complications, such as a block or insufficient motor return, which can affect mobility and pain management.
A woman is 1 hour postcesarean delivery with nausea and an estimated blood loss of 1,200 mL. She is currently experiencing heavy vaginal bleeding and has a uterus that firms with massage. She has a history of asthma with a current O2 saturation of 89%. The licensed provider has ordered Cytotec 800 mcg and Methergine 0.2 mg. What collaborative communication should occur between the nurse and provider?
- A. Since the total blood loss is under 1,500 mL, Cytotec and Methergine administration could be delayed for a time.
- B. Cytotec should be given rectally because the patient is already nauseated, and the Methergine route should be ordered.
- C. Recommend that the abdominal dressing be removed to inspect for incisional bleeding.
- D. Recommend that the patient not get Methergine because she has a history of asthma.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Recommend that the patient not get Methergine because she has a history of asthma. Methergine is contraindicated in patients with a history of asthma due to its potential to cause bronchospasm and worsen respiratory function. As the patient has a history of asthma with a current low O2 saturation, administering Methergine could exacerbate her respiratory status. Collaborative communication between the nurse and provider is crucial to ensure patient safety and avoid potential complications.
Summary of other choices:
A: Delaying administration of Cytotec and Methergine is not appropriate as the patient is experiencing heavy vaginal bleeding and needs prompt management.
B: Giving Cytotec rectally and considering the route for Methergine do not address the contraindication of Methergine in a patient with asthma.
C: Removing the abdominal dressing to inspect for incisional bleeding may be necessary but does not address the contraindication of Methergine in a
A postpartum cesarean patient comes into the rural health clinic at 1 week postdelivery for an incision check by the nurse. The vital signs reveal a temperature of 100.5°F, and the patient reports moderate foul-smelling lochia. The nurse determines that the skin incision is healing normally, but when palpating the uterus, she discovers the patient to have uterine and pelvic tenderness. What are the most appropriate nursing actions?
- A. Explain to the patient that she may have an infection of her uterus, and blood will need to be drawn to determine if this is the cause of her pain and excess bleeding.
- B. Explain that the client should rest more to help the bleeding slow and that she should return to the clinic if she isn’t feeling better in a few days.
- C. Explain to the patient that she is experiencing normal postoperative pain and bleeding and to come back for her scheduled 6-week postpartum checkup.
- D. Explain to the patient that the incision appears to be healing nicely. Have her take Tylenol for the elevated temperature and continue with the ordered pain medication until her next visit.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The foul-smelling lochia, fever, and uterine tenderness point toward a uterine infection, requiring further investigation.
The nurse is providing care for a patient who is 1 day postpartum and exhibiting symptoms of postpartum psychosis. Which medical management does the nurse expect for this patient?
- A. Prescriptions for antidepressant/antipsychotic drugs
- B. Discharge to home with 24-hour observation in place
- C. Immediate hospitalization in a psychiatric unit
- D. Prescribed neonate visits during in-patient treatment
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Postpartum psychosis is a psychiatric emergency requiring immediate intervention.
Step 2: Immediate hospitalization in a psychiatric unit ensures safety and specialized care.
Step 3: Hospitalization allows for close monitoring, medication management, and therapy.
Step 4: Discharge to home or prescribed neonate visits are not appropriate due to the severity of symptoms in postpartum psychosis.