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What were the findings of the Study to Understand Progno ses and Preferences for Outcomes and Risks of Treatment (SUPPORT)?
- A. Clear communication is typical in the relationships bet ween most patients and healthcare providers.
- B. Critical care units often meet the needs of dying patients and their families.
- C. Disparities exist between patients’ care preferences anadb iarbc.tcuomal/t ecsat re provided.
- D. Pain and suffering of patients at end of life is well cont rolled in the hospital.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the SUPPORT study revealed disparities between patients' care preferences and the actual care provided. This is supported by the findings that many patients did not receive treatments aligned with their preferences. Choice A is incorrect because the study actually highlighted communication challenges between patients and healthcare providers. Choice B is incorrect as the study showed that critical care units often do not meet the needs of dying patients and their families. Choice D is incorrect as the study found that pain and suffering of patients at the end of life are not always well controlled in hospitals.
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The nurse is caring for a terminally ill patient who has 20-second periods of apnea followed by periods of deep and rapid breathing. Which action by the nurse would be most appropriate?
- A. Suction the patient.
- B. Administer oxygen via face mask.
- C. Place the patient in a high Fowler’s position.
- D. Document the respirations as Cheyne-Stokes.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient is exhibiting Cheyne-Stokes breathing pattern characterized by periods of apnea followed by deep and rapid breathing. The nurse should document this pattern accurately. Option A is incorrect as suctioning is not indicated. Option B may worsen the respiratory pattern. Option C is not specifically related to addressing the breathing pattern.
What diagnostic procedure is required to make a definitive diagnosis of pulmonary embolism?
- A. Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis.
- B. Chest x-ray examination.
- C. High resolution multidetector CT angiogram.
- D. Ventilation-perfusion scanning.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: High resolution multidetector CT angiogram. This diagnostic procedure is required for a definitive diagnosis of pulmonary embolism because it provides detailed imaging of the pulmonary vasculature, allowing visualization of blood clots in the pulmonary arteries.
A: Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis does not directly diagnose pulmonary embolism but may show signs of hypoxemia or respiratory alkalosis, which can be seen in some cases of pulmonary embolism.
B: Chest x-ray examination may show nonspecific findings such as atelectasis or pleural effusion but cannot definitively diagnose pulmonary embolism.
D: Ventilation-perfusion scanning is another imaging modality used in the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism, but it is less commonly used compared to CT angiogram due to lower sensitivity and specificity.
The charge nurse is supervising care for a group of patients monitored with a variety of invasive hemodynamic devices. Which patient should the charge nurse evaluate first?
- A. A patient with a central venous pressure (RAP/CVP) oafb i6rb .mcomm/ teHstg and 40 mL of urine output in the past hour
- B. A patient with a left radial arterial line with a BP of 11 0/60 mm Hg and slightly dampened arterial waveform
- C. A patient with a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure of 25 mm Hg and an oxygen saturation of 89% on 3 L of oxygen via nasal cannula
- D. A patient with a pulmonary artery pressure of 25/10 mm Hg and an oxygen saturation of 94% on 2 L of oxygen via nasal cannula
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure of 25 mm Hg indicates possible fluid overload or cardiac issue requiring urgent evaluation. This value is high, suggesting increased pressure in the left side of the heart. Additionally, the oxygen saturation of 89% on 3 L of oxygen indicates potential respiratory compromise. This patient needs immediate assessment and intervention to prevent worsening of their condition.
Choice A is incorrect as a central venous pressure of 6 mm Hg is within normal limits, and the urine output is adequate. Choice B is incorrect as a BP of 110/60 mm Hg is acceptable, and a slightly dampened arterial waveform is not an immediate concern. Choice D is incorrect as a pulmonary artery pressure of 25/10 mm Hg is within normal range, and an oxygen saturation of 94% on 2 L of oxygen is acceptable.
A young adult patient with metastatic cancer, who is very close to death, appears restless. The patient keeps repeating, 'I am not ready to die.' Which action is best for the nurse to take?
- A. Remind the patient that no one feels ready for death.
- B. Sit at the bedside and ask if there is anything the patient needs.
- C. Insist that family members remain at the bedside with the patient.
- D. Tell the patient that everything possible is being done to delay death.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because sitting at the bedside and asking if there is anything the patient needs demonstrates empathy and support. It allows the patient to express their concerns and fears, providing emotional comfort. It shows the nurse is actively listening and willing to help address any immediate needs or concerns.
Choice A is incorrect because it dismisses the patient's feelings and may come across as invalidating. Choice C is incorrect because insisting that family members remain may not be what the patient needs at that moment and could cause additional stress. Choice D is incorrect because it does not address the patient's emotional distress and may not be true in the context of terminal illness.
A patient is being mechanically ventilated in the synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation mode at a rate of 4 breaths/min. Spontaneous reabsiprbi.rcaotmio/tensst are 12 breaths/min. After receiving a dose of morphine sulfate, respirations decrease to 4 breaths/min. Which acid-base disturbance will likely occur?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (Respiratory alkalosis). Morphine sulfate can cause respiratory depression, leading to decreased respiratory rate. In this case, the patient's breaths decrease from 12 to 4 breaths/min, indicating hypoventilation. With decreased ventilation, there is less CO2 elimination, resulting in respiratory alkalosis. The other choices can be ruled out: A (Metabolic acidosis) and B (Metabolic alkalosis) are less likely caused by morphine sulfate, and C (Respiratory acidosis) is incorrect because the scenario describes hypoventilation, not hyperventilation.