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Which of the following lab value profiles should the nurse know to be consistent with hemolytic anemia?
- A. Increased RBC, decreased bilirubin, decreased Hgb and Hct, increased reticulocytes
- B. Decreased RBC, increased bilirubin, decreased Hgb and Hct, increased reticulocytes
- C. Decreased RBC, decreased bilirubin, increased Hgb and Hct, decreased reticulocytes
- D. Increased RBC, increased bilirubin, increased Hgb and Hct, decreased reticulocytes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hemolytic anemias are characterized by the premature destruction of red blood cells. As a result, the lab values typically seen in hemolytic anemia include decreased red blood cell counts (RBC), increased bilirubin (due to the breakdown of red blood cells), decreased hemoglobin (Hgb) and hematocrit (Hct) levels, and increased reticulocytes (immature red blood cells released from the bone marrow in response to the increased demand for red blood cell production). Therefore, profile B aligns with the expected lab values consistent with hemolytic anemia.
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A pregnant client requires immediate but temporary protection from chickenpox. Which type of immunization would be required?
- A. Naturally acquired active immunization
- B. Artificially acquired passive
- C. Artificially acquired active immunization immunization
- D. Passive immunization
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Passive immunization involves the administration of pre-formed antibodies rather than stimulating the individual's immune system to produce its own antibodies (active immunization). In the case of a pregnant client requiring immediate but temporary protection from chickenpox, passive immunization would be the most appropriate choice. This is because passive immunization can provide immediate protection without activating the pregnant individual's immune system, which could pose potential risks during pregnancy. By introducing pre-formed antibodies against chickenpox, the pregnant client can acquire temporary immunity to the virus, safeguarding both her and her developing baby.
Which of the following dietary interventions prevents the precipitation of calcium renal stones?
- A. High fiber diet
- B. Increased protein intake
- C. High fluid intake
- D. Intake of zinc
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: High fluid intake is the dietary intervention that prevents the precipitation of calcium renal stones. By increasing fluid intake, particularly water, the urine gets diluted, thus reducing the concentration of substances that can lead to the formation of kidney stones, including calcium. Drinking enough water can also help to flush out any potential stone-forming minerals or substances before they have a chance to crystallize and form stones in the kidney. It is recommended to have an adequate fluid intake of around 2 to 3 liters per day to reduce the risk of calcium stone formation in the kidneys. High fiber diet, increased protein intake, and intake of zinc do not directly prevent the precipitation of calcium renal stones as effectively as maintaining high fluid intake.
A patient who is suspected of having hypothyroidism should be expected which of these symptoms?
- A. tachycardia
- B. hyperthermia
- C. weight loss
- D. extreme fatigue
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone, leading to a slowing down of the body's metabolic processes. One of the hallmark symptoms of hypothyroidism is extreme fatigue or tiredness. This can be due to the overall decrease in metabolic rate affecting energy levels and causing a feeling of exhaustion. Other common symptoms of hypothyroidism include weight gain, cold intolerance, constipation, dry skin, and depression. Tachycardia (fast heart rate), hyperthermia (elevated body temperature), and weight loss are not typically associated with hypothyroidism, but rather with conditions such as hyperthyroidism where there is an excess of thyroid hormone production.
Which of the following settings is most therapeutic for an agitated head-injured patient?
- A. A day room with family visitors and variety of caregivers
- B. A semiprivate room with one or two consistent caregivers
- C. A ward with other head-injured patients and volunteers to assist with needs
- D. A hallway near the nurse's station with adequate sensory stimulation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For an agitated head-injured patient, the most therapeutic setting would be a semiprivate room with one or two consistent caregivers. Consistency and familiarity can help reduce agitation and promote a sense of security for the patient. A quieter environment with fewer stimuli can also help in managing agitation and promoting a sense of calmness. By having consistent caregivers, the patient can build trust and feel more comfortable, which can contribute to their overall well-being and recovery. It is essential to minimize external factors that could contribute to further agitation, making a semiprivate room with consistent caregivers the most optimal setting for an agitated head-injured patient.
Which of the ff interventions is implemented for a client with empyema?
- A. Teach the client breathing exercises
- B. Offer assurance that empyema takes less time to resolve
- C. Recommend that the client eat a balanced but light diet
- D. Emphasize the completion of the entire course of drug therapy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Empyema is a serious infection that requires aggressive treatment with antibiotics. The client must complete the entire course of drug therapy as prescribed by the healthcare provider to ensure that the infection is completely eradicated. Failure to complete the full course of antibiotics can lead to antibiotic resistance and recurrence of the infection. It is crucial to emphasize to the client the importance of adhering to the prescribed treatment regimen to achieve a full recovery and prevent complications.